AIIMS NOVEMBER 2007 MCQs Question Paper

1. All of the following are sources of Ω-3 PUFA except:

a. Mustard oil

b. Groundnut oil

c. Corn oil

d. Fish oil


2. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attched to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal:

a. Peroneus brevis

b. Peroneus longus

c. Peroneus tertius

d. Extensor digitorum brevis


3. Kanavel’s sign is seen in:

a. Tenosynovitis

b. Dupuyteren’s contracture

c. Carpal tunnel syndrome

d. Trigger finger


4. Staging of bone tumours is done by:

a. Enneking

b. Manchester

c. Edmonton

d. TNM


5. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except:

a. Deep myometrial invasion

b. Pelvic lymph node involvement

c. Enlarged uterine cavity

d. Poor tumour differentiation


6. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:

a. Dedifferentiation

b. Redifferentiation

c. Transdifferentiation

d. Subdifferentiation


7. ‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in:

a. Tetralogy of Fallot

b. Uncorrected TGA

c. Tricuspid atresia

d. Ebstein’s anomaly


8. All are essential components of TOF except:

a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis

b. Right ventricular hypertrophy

c. Infundibular stenosis

d. Aorta overriding


9. Hampton’s hump is seen in:

a. Pulmonary embolism

b. Tuberculosis

c. Bronchogenic Ca

d. ..


10. All of the following can be used for thromboprophylaxis except:

a. Heparin

b. Aspirin

c. Warfarin

d. Antithrombin-III


11. ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no prefious significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely diagnosis is:

a. Vasovagal shock

b. Pulmonary embolism

c. Complete heart block

d. Temporal lobe epilepsy


12. Uppermost structure seen at the hilus of the left lung is:

a. Pulmonary artery

b. Pulmonary vein

c. Bronchus

d. Bronchial artery


13. The best investigation is thromboembolism is:

a. D-dimer levels

b. Multicentric CT angiography

c. Colour Doppler USG

d. Intracatheter angiography


14. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except:

a. Loop diuretics

b. Lithium

c. Vitamin D intoxication

d. ..


15. Nephelometry is:

a. Lambert-Beer law

b. Scattering of light by particulate solution

c. Defraction of light

d. Decreased intensity of light


16. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is:

a. Intradural extramedullary

b. Extradural

c. Intramedullary

d. All have equal distribution


17. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on non-contrast CT scan of the brain is seen in:

a. Alexander’s disease

b. Krabbe’s ds.

c. Canavan’s ds

d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy


18. A 2-year old child presents with scattered lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly associated is:

a. CD1a

b. CD57

c. CD3

d. CD68


19. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery:

a. Atenolol

b. Amlodepine

c. Statins

d. Metformin


20. Which of the following is not included in intensive management of diabetes mellitus:

a. Pregnancy..

b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy

c. DM with acute MI

d. Post kidney transplant


21. VHL syndrome includes all except:

a. Endolymphatic sac tumours

b. Pheochromocytoma

c. Hemangioendotheliomas

d. Islet cell tumours


22. All but one acts via GABAA except:

a. Thiopentone

b. Midazolam

c. Zolpidem

d. Promethazine


23. Which of the following is not used as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect:

a. Digitalis,anti-arrhythmics

b. Antihistaminics,antidepressants

c. Macrolides,…

d. ..


24. Caspases are involved in:

a. Apoptosis

b. ..

c. ..

d. ..


25. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally characterized by:

a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria

b. Depletion of glycogen

c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum

d. Perinuclear staining


26. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to:

a. Brachyury gene

b. BMPR-4

c. Nodal gene

d. FGF-8


27. HACEK group includes all except:

a. Hemophilus aprophillus

b. Acinetobacter baumanni

c. Eikenella corrodens

d. Cardiobacterium hominis


28. All are true about Thiopentone except:

a. NaHCO3 is a preservative

b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias

c. Agent of choice in shock

d. Cerebroprotective


29. All regarding Mivacurium are true except:

a. Larger doses speed the onset of action

b. Bronchospasm

c. Flushing

d. Hypertension


30. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis. Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:(do not remember the exact question but it was a straight forward question):

a. Chlamydia trachomatis

b. H.ducreyi

c. Treponema pallidum

d. ..


31. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using:

a. M protein

b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall

c. Group C carbohydrate antigen

d. ..


32. Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:

a. Propofol

b. Ketamine

c. Atracurium

d. Fentanyl


33. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is:

a. HBV-DNA polymerase

b. IgG anti-HBc

c. Core antigen (HbcAg)

d. Anti-HbsAg


34. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all except:

a. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand

b. Weakness of the hypothenar muscles

c. Claw hand

d. Adductor pollicis paralysis


35. After fracture of the penis ( injury to the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at:

a. The penis and scrotum

b. At the perineum in a butterfly shape

c. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall

d. Shaft of the penis only.


36. Floating ‘Water-Lily’ sign is seen in:

a. Hydatid ds.

b. Aspergillosis

c. Tuberculous cavity

d. ..


37. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip:

a. Flexion

b. Extension

c. Medial rotation

d. Lateral rotation


38. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:

a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery

b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery

c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery

d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery


39. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between:

a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral artery

b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery

c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery

d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular artery


40. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs in maintained by increased blood flow through:

a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels

b. Intercostal and Superior epigastric

c. Subcostal and Umbilical

d. …


41. Which of the following is correctly matched:

a. B cells – Somatostain

b. D cells – Insulin

c. G cells – Gastrin

d. …..


42. Exercise causes:

a. Increased blood flow to the muscles after half minute of minute

b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure

c. Body temperature rise

d. …


43. All of the following occur when the blood flows through the capillaries except:

a. Increase in hematocrit

b. Hb curve shifts to the left

c. Increased protein content

d. Decrease in pH


44. When a person changes position from standing to lying down position, following occurs:

a. Heart rate increases and settles at a higher level

b. Venous return to the heart rises immediately

c. Cerebral blood flow becomes more than that in standing position and settles at a higher level

d. Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex


45. In mitral valve prolapse, the histological finding is:

a. Hyalinization of the valve

b. Fibrinoid necrosis

c. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve

d. ..


46. Regarding flourosis all are true except:

a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children

b. Deposition occurs in the skeletal system and muscles

c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique

d. Genu valgum


47. SAFE strategy is recommended for:

a. Trachoma

b. Glaucoma

c. Diabetic retinopathy

d. Cataract


48. Telefona is:

a. Beating on the feet ( soles )

b. Pulling of hair

c. Beating on both the ears

d. ..


49. A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia to you. She had suffered from typhoid fever 4 months back. Most probable diagnosis is:

a. Androgenetic alopecia

b. Telogen effluvium

c. Anagen effluvium

d. Alopecia areata


50. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing alopecia except:

a. Lichen planus

b. Discoid lupus erythematosus

c. Alopecia areata

d. Lupus vulgaris


51. Learning does not include:

a. Modelling

b. Catharsis

c. Exposure

d. Sensitization


52. In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened is:

a. Head

b. Neck

c. Thorax

d. Abdomen


53. Acridine orange is used as a stain for:

a. DNA and RNA

b. Proteins

c. Carbohydrate

d. Lipids


54. PAS does not stain:

a. Fungal cell wall

b. Basement membrane of bacteria

c. Glycogen

d. Lipids


55. Not used to stain fats:

a. Oil red O

b. Congo red

c. Sudan III

d. Sudan black


56. Peroxidase is used to detect:

a. Glucose

b. Ammonia

c. Hemoglobin

d. Creatinine


57. Hemoglobin estimation is not done by:

a. Drabkin’s method

b. Sahli’s method

c. Spectrometry

d. Wintrobe’s method


58. All of the following are included in grievous hurt except:

a. Loss of testis

b. Loss of eye

c. Loss of kidney

d. Abrasion of the face


59. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is:

a. Astereognosis

b. Hemiparesis

c. Hemisensoriloss

d. No neurological deficit


60. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except:

a. B/L renal artery stenosis

b. End stage renal disease

c. Cushing’s disease

d. Primary hyperaldosteronism


61. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except:

a. Beta blockers

b. Glucocorticoids

c. ..

d. ..


62. Cushing’s disease includes all except:

a. Central obesity

b. Episodic hypertension

c. Easy bruisability

d. Glucose intolerance


63. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all except:

a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon

b. It involves entire / part of the large colon

c. It occurs after previous surgery

d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use


64. One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries:

a. Ascending colon

b. Hepatic flexure

c. Splenic flexure

d. Descending colon


65. Regarding Phenytoin,false is:

a. Induces microsomal enzymes

b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs

c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life

d. Highly protein bound


66. Most potent anti-emetic is:

a. Ondansetron

b. Granisetron

c. Dolasetron

d. Pavalosetron


67. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except:

a. Factor VIII

b. Factor IX

c. Von Willebrand factor

d. Fibrinogen


68. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except:

a. Tacrolimus

b. Metformin

c. Cyclosporine

d. Phenytoin


69. Not a measure of central tendency:

a. Mode

b. Range

c. Variable

d. Standard deviation


70. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except:

a. HSG

b. Hysteroscopy

c. Endometrial culture

d. Saline infusion USG


71. Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans act through:

a. 5HT-1A

b. 5HT-1B

c. 5HT-1F

d. 5HT-3


72. True about protease inhibitors are all except:

a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by mdr-1 gene

b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism

c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions

d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4


73. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to:

a. Subphrenic abscess

b. CO2 narcosis

c. Positioning of the patient

d. Compression of the lung


74. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is:

a. Thayer-martin

b. TCBS medium

c. Scirrow’s medium

d. ..


75. Primary impact injury is seen externally most commonly in the:

a. Head

b. Chest

c. Legs

d. Abdomen

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76. In tandem [bleep], the number of [bleep] fired are:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4


77. For biochemical analysis vitrous in sent in:

a. Hydrochloric acid

b. Phenol

c. Formalin

d. Fluoride


78. The agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:

a. Ethyl alcohol

b. Acetone

c. Formalin

d. Xylol


79. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by:

a. Sodium hypochlorite

b. Iodine

c. Absolute alcohol

d. Quarternary ammonium compounds


80. Which of the following person is present in a sub centre:

a. Multipurpose worker

b. Laboratory technician

c. Health educator

d. Medical officer


81. True about dietary allowance are all except:

a. Adequate intake

b. RDA

c. Dietary intake according to food composition

d. Food intake according to the upper limit of the RDA


82. Most common type of seizures in neonates are:

a. Clonic

b. Tonic

c. Subtle

d. Myoclonic


83. Gall bladder epithelium is:

a. Simple squamous

b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia

c. Simple columnar

d. Simple columnar with brush border


84. After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What would you do next?

a. Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days

b. Observation in hospital

c. Surgical drainage

d. Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks


85. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. On examination it is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending till below the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The thyroid examination is normal. What should be done next?

a. Percutaneous aspiration

b. I.V. antibiotics

c. Surgical removal

d. Observation


86. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in:

a. Mineralocortoid excess

b. Increased excretion of base

c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion

d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids


87. Goniometry is measurement of:

a. Number of gonococci

b. Length of the genital hiatus

c. Urethrovesical angle

d. ..


88. Good Clinical Practices (GCPs) are not a part of:

a. Preclinical studies

b. Phase I studies

c. Phase II studies

d. Phase IV studies


89. A 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, weight loss and milky discharge from the pages . Most likely diagnosis is:

a. Anorexia nervosa

b. Occult carcinoma

c. Hypothyroidism

d. HIV


90. Mirena is:

a. Used in abortion

b. Anti-progesterone

c. Progesterone IUCD

d. Hormonal implant


91. Bisphosphonates are not used in:

a. Hypercalcemia

b. Osteoporosis

c. Cancer

d. Vitamin D intoxication


92. True about vitiligo are all except:

a. Topical steroids give good results

b. Genetic predisposition

c. PUVA-B is used for the treatment

d. Leukotrichia is associated with good prognosis


93. In osteomalacia, all are true except:

a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase

b. Increased serum calcium

c. Looser’s zones

d. Proximal myopathy


94. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:

a. Type 1

b. Type 2

c. Type 3

d. Type 4


95. FNAC needle gauge size is:

a. 26 – 28

b. 22 – 26

c. 18 – 22

d. 16 – 18


96. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line:

a. Innermost intercostals

b. Transverses thoracis

c. External intercostals

d. Internal intercostals


97. Dangerous area of the face is:

a. Ciliary body

b. Sclera

c. Optic nerve

d. Retina


[snip]. PCR requires:

a. Li++

b. Ca++

c. Na++

d. Mg++


99. Urothelium does not line:

a. Collecting ducts

b. Minor calyx

c. Ureter

d. Urinary bladder


100. Ureteric peristalsis is due to:

a. Sympathetic innervation

b. Parasympathetic innervation

c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation

d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle cells in the renal pelvis

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101. Uterine relaxant with the least side effect:

a. Ritodrine

b. MgSO4

c. Nifedipine

d. Progesterone


102. In Primary Pulmonary Hypertension all are seen except:

a. Hyperventilation

b. Morbid obesity

c. Fenfluramine

d. High altitude


103. Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is:

a. Foramen of Monro

b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle

c. Trigone of the lateral ventricle

d. Fourth ventricle


104. According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is:

a. Caudate lobe

b. Quadrate lobe

c. Left lobe

d. Right lobe


105. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called:

a. Right dominance

b. Left dominance

c. Balanced dominance

d. ..


106. Not a feature of DKA is:

a. Tachypnoea

b. Bradycardia

c. Abdominal pain

d. Dehydration


107. In Down’s syndrome, false is:

a. Increased PAPP-A

b. Increased β-HCG

c. Absent nasal bone

d. Reversal of diastolic blood flow


108. With CSF all are true except:

a. Persistent leakage causes headache

b. Neutrophils are normally not present

c. pH is less than that of blood

d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi


109. Fractional excretion of Na++

a. Pre-renal azotemia

b. ATN

c. Intrinsic renal failure

d. Renal artery stenosis


110. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:

a. Reduvid bug

b. Trombiculid mite

c. Enteric pathogens

d. Cyclops


111. Kala-azar, vector is:

a. Flea

b. Tsetse fly

c. Sand fly

d. ..


112. Regarding genital development, true is:

a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development

b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week

c. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals

d. Genital development is complete by 10th week


113. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except:

a. Mitotic figures in the central cornea

b. Wide separated collagen bands

c. Hydration of the corneal epithelium

d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers


114. Regarding furosemide, true is:

a. Given by parenteral route only

b. Used in pulmonary oedema

c. Acts at the PCT

d. ..


115. Basement membrane consists of all except:

a. Laminin

b. Nidogenin

c. Entactin

d. Rhodopsin


116. Thiazides cause all except:

a. Hyperglycemia

b. Increased calcium excretion

c. Increased uric acid excretion

d. Useful in congestive heart failure


117. Fast axonal transport is by all except:

a. Dynenin

b. Kinesin

c. Microfilaments

d. Neurofilaments


118. Most common tumor is NF-1 is:

a. Astrocytoma

b. Optic tract glioma

c. Glioblastoma multiforme

d. ..


119. Regarding type A personality, false is:

a. Hostility

b. Time pressure

c. Competitiveness

d. Mood fluctuations


120. Not included in the National Immunisation Programme is:

a. Tetanus toxoid

b. Hepatitis B

c. BCG

d. Measles


121. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except:

a. PNH

b. Megaloblastic anaemia

c. Myelodysplastic anaemia

d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia


122. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:

a. Isthmus of the thyroid

b. Inferior thyroid artery

c. Thyroidea ima

d. Inferior thyroid vein


123. A newborn female child, weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is:

a. Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection

b. Meconium aspiration syndrome

c. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

d. Disseminated HSV infection


124. All are characteristics of schizophrenia except:

a. Third person auditory hallucinations

b. Inappropriate emotions

c. Long stretches of mood changes

d. Formal thought disorder


125. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect in:

a. β2 – microglobulin

b. Transthyretin

c. AANF

d. Pyrin


126. Perforators are not present at the:

a. Ankle

b. Distal calf

c. Mid thigh

d. Below the inguinal ligament


127. Increase in maternal serum AFP levels is seen in:

a. Down’s syndrome

b. Molar pregnancy

c. Over estimated gestational age

d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome


128. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to:

a. Atrial contraction

b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium

c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed

d. ..


129. Tongue develops from:

a. Occipital somites

b. Mesoderm of the pharyngeal pouch

c. Cervical somites

d. ..


130. Prions consist of:

a. DNA and RNA

b. DNA, RNA and proteins

c. RNA and proteins

d. Only proteins


131. Polyhydramnios is associated with all except:

a. ..

b. ..

c. Bilateral renal agenesis

d. ..


132. Shock lung is characterized histologically by:

a. Diffuse alveolar oedema

b. Hemosiderosis

c. Interstitial pneumonia

d. Pulmonary oedema


133. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except:

a. RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants

b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults

c. ..

d. ..


134. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of transeverse lie is associated with the following complication:

a. Uterine rupture

b. Vaginal laceration

c. Uterine atony

d. Cervical laceration


135. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with an existing heart disease, which is contraindicated:

a. Misoprostol

b. Methyl ergometrine

c. Oxytocin

d. ..


136. A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is:

a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy

b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy

c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy

d. Total laryngectomy


137. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to other hypnotics is:

a. They alter sleep pattern more than other hypnotics

b. More sedative than other hypnotics

c. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics

d. ..


138. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be:

a. Administer Dinoprostone

b. Administer Progesterone

c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch

d. Apply McDonald’s stitch


139. A female come with complaints of chest pain.On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by:

a. Deep cardiac plexus

b. Superficial cardiac plexus

c. Phrenic nerve

d. Subcostal nerve


140. The mechanism of action of surfactant is:

a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli

b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion

c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic

d. ..


141. A 12 year old girl presents with Acute rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have:

a. Increased peak expiratory flow

b. Increased total lung capacity

c. Increased residual volume

d. Decreased functional residual capacity


142. Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from:

a. PCT

b. DCT

c. Collecting duct

d. Thick ascending loop of Henle


143. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is:

a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria

b. ..

c. ..

d. ..


144. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is:

a. The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase

b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes and phagosomes

c. There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane

d. ..


145. Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:

a. Evaluation

b. Monitoring

c. Input - output analysis

d. Network analysis


146. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation:

a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte

b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte

c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid

d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid


147. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for:

a. FSH

b. LH

c. Inhibin

d. ..


148. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except:

a. Sperm count > 20 million

b. Volume > 1 ml

c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria)

d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 %


149. 18 year old male presents with pectus excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination there is mild pectus excavatum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if he has:

a. FEV1 / FVC less than 0.60

b. Limiation of maximum inspiration during exercise

c. Peak work capacity 60% of expected

d. Functional work capacity 80% of expected


150. Following is associated with maximum risk of invasive carcinoma of cervix:

a. Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

b. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

c. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HPV-16

d. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HIV

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151. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by:

a. Maternal deaths/live birth

b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births

c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births

d. Maternal deaths/100000 population


152. In HIV window period indicates:

a. Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms

b. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV

c. .

d. .


153. In an epidemic the first case of come to the notice of the investigator is:

a. Index case

b. Primary case

c. Secondary case

d. Tertiary case


154. In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen except:

a. HbsAg

b. IgM anti-HbcAg

c. HbeAg

d. Anti-HbsAg


155. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:

a. Chronic hepatitis B with…

b. Alcoholic hepatitis

c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis

d. Hemochromatosis


156. Councilman bodies are seen in:

a. Alcoholic cirrhosis

b. Wilson’s disease

c. Acute viral hepatitis

d. ..


157. Altered perception of real objects is:

a. Illusion

b. Delusion

c. Hallucination

d. Delirium


158. Epidemic Dropsy is due to:

a. BOAA

b. Sanguinarine

c. Aflatoxin

d. ..


159. Vitamin K is required for:

a. Carboxylation

b. Hydroxylation

c. ..

d. ..


160. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease:

a. Immigration of healthy persons

b. Increased cure rate of the disease

c. Longer duration of the disease

d. ..


161. A 30 year old male patient presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base. The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his management will be:

a. Proton pump inhibitors

b. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and pyloroplasty

c. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and truncal vagotomy with antrectomy

d. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer


162. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the following order:

a. Abdomen – Neck

b. Chest – Abdomen – Neck

c. Abdomen – Chest – Neck

d. Chest – Neck


163. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all except:

a. Polycystic ovarian disease

b. Multiple pregnancies

c. Ovarian cancer

d. Teratogenecity


164. Regarding National Polio Surveillance all are tru except:

a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases found

b. ..

c. ..

d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done in children


165. True about polioviruses is:

a. Most cases are symptomatic

b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce spastic paralysis

c. ..

d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less than 3 years of age


166. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now?

a. Re-start the immunization according to age

b. Give BCG, Measles, and second doses of OPV and DPT

c. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT

d. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT


167. Regarding nitric oxide, false is:

a. Seen in the lung of smokers

b. Increases cAMP levels

c. Used to treat hypertension

d. ..


168. True about fibrates is all except:

a. (MOA)….PPARα….lipoprotein lipase…decreased LDL…

b. Absorped better on empty stomach and decreased on food intake

c. Side effects include rash, myalgia, impotence and many others

d. They are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and…


169. In a survey, mamny children are examinedand were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial cancers are most likely to be associated with which anomaly:

a. Medullary sponge kidney

b. Bladder extrophy

c. Unilateral renal agenesis

d. Double ureter


170. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders:

a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders

b. Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members

c. Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity

d. ..


171. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is:

a. Screening

b. Surveillance

c. Case finding

d. Notification


172. Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is based on:

a. Unconscious conflict

b. Maladjusted reinforcement

c. Organic neurological problem

d. ..


173. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the person is:

a. Immune to diphtheria

b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria

c. Susceptible to diphtheria

d. Carrier of diphtheria


174. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is:

a. Deep invasion is not seen

b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity

c. Metachromatic granules are seen

d. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change


175. Primary Health Care is:

a. Health for all

b. ..

c. ..

d. ..


176. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the highest?

a. Coarcatation of aorta

b. Eisenmenger’s complex

c. Aortic stenosis

d. Mitral stenosis


177. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pumps are inhibited by:

a. Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis

b. Activation of anaerobic glycolysis

c. Activation of cAMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors

d. Interference with electron chain transport


178. About myocardial O2 demand, true is:

a. Inverse relation with heart rate

b. Inverse relation to systemic hypertension

c. Constant relation to external work done

d. Negligible in quiescent heart


179. Not a part of informed consent is:

a. ..

b. ..

c. ..

d. Concealed information…..


180. Proteins which are different in peptide sequence but have a similar structure are said to be:

a. Convergent

b. Divergent

c. Opportunistic

d. ..


181. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings having pituitary involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis:

a. MEN 1

b. MEN 2A

c. MEN 2B

d. MEN 2C


182. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is:

a. Glomerulonephritis

b. Ca-Urinary bladder

c. Ureteral calculus

d. ..


183. Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?

a. School teachers

b. Medical officers of health centers

c. Ophthalmologists

d. Health assistants


184. A 71/2 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is:

a. Post viral syndrome

b. Bronchiolitis obliterans

c. Follicular bronchitis

d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis


185. A 2 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe and fever. Your next investigation would be:

a. Bronchoscopy

b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx

c. CT scan of the chest

d. Allergen sensitivity test


186. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney is due to:

a. Congenital renal defect

b. Obstructive uropathy

c. Intrauterine infections and scar

d. Is a normal variety


187. A child presents with history of respitory infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis:

a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements

b. Nasal electrode potential difference

c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours

d. DNA analysis for Δ508 mutation


188. A term infant has not passed meconium for 48 hours. He presents with distension of abdomen and emesis since one day. Next most appropriate investigation would be:

a. Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis

b. Manometry

c. Lower bowel contrast enema

d. Oesophagoscopy


189. A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in the pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:

a. Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks

b. IV antibiotics and follow up after a month

c. Tympanoplasty

d. Tympano-mastoid exploration


190. A 18 year old primigravida complained of decreased fetal movements. She delivered a baby weighing 2000gms at 30 weeks of gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes respectively. The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem examination revealed multiple, peripheral, radially arranged cysts in the kidney. Most common associated finding in the baby would be:

a. Holoprosencephaly

b. Hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis

c. Ureteral agenesis

d. Medullary sponge kidney


191. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:

a. MRI of the brain

b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses

c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses

d. Inferior meatus puncture


192. A 71/2 year old child presents with non-blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee. Urine analysis shows proteinurea + and hematuris +++. On kidney biopsy which finding will be most commonly seen:

a. Fusion of podocytes

b. Acute tubular necrosis

c. Deposition of IgA

d. Thickened basement membrane


193. In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is seen:

a. Hypertrophy and degeneration of the visceral epithelium

b. Proliferation of the parietal epithelium

c. Tuft necrosis

d. Mesangiolysis


194. Which vaccine should not be given to a child suffering from convulsions?

a. Measles

b. BCG

c. DPT

d. OPV


195. Not seen in SIADH is:

a. Hyponatremia

b. Hypouricemia

c. Volume depletion

d. ..


196. A 40 year old man, smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevations suggesting an inferior wall infarction. Next step in the management would be:

a. Aspirin

b. Thrombolytic therapy

c. Pantoprazole

d. Beta-blockers


197. The ureter develops from:

a. Metanephros

b. Mesonephros

c. Mesonephric duct

d. Paramesonephric duct


198. A child presented with respiratory distress.was broght to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. Now intubated. Chest x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdomen. His Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What is the next step?

a. Remove the Endotracheal tube

b. Put a nasogastric tube

c. Surgery

d. Tube thoracostomy


199. OC pills are contraindicated in patients receiving:

a. Rifampicin

b. Ethambutol

c. Streptomycin

d. Pyrazinamide


200. A patient is on a Low calcium diet for 6 weeks. He is most likely to have:

a. Raised parathyroid hormone levels

b. Raised calcitonin levels

c. Increased phosphate levels