A 59-year-old Catholic male patient has been abusing alcohol for the past 18 years. His history revels that his wife recently asked him for a separation. Which of the following characteristics is this patient’s greatest risk factor for suicide?
A. Age
B. Religion
C. Male sex
D. Alcoholism
E. Marital Separation
Based on the previous case, analysis of nerurotransmitter availability in the brain of this patient is most likely to reveal:
A. decreased serotonin
B. increased dopamine
C. decreased acetylcholine
D. decreased histamine
E. increased acetylcholine
A 56-year-old woman whose husband died 8-months ago tells her physician that she believes killing herself would end her suffering. Physical examination is uremarkable. Which of following signs and symptoms, which is most likey to seen in this patient?
A. Weight gain
B. Poor grooming
C. Auditory hallucinations
D. Feelings better in the morning than in the evening
E. Flight of ideas
A person who had been experiencing (for the past 3 years) a mild form of a loss of interest in his or her usual activities, in addition to psychomotor agitation, increased appetite, insomnia, and thoughts of committing suicide, would be diagnosed as having:
A. Cyclothymic disorder
B. Biplolar II disorder.
C. Major depression.
D. Dysthymia
E. Double depression.
The most effective treatment for mania is
A. ECT
B. Lithium
C. A heterocyclic antidepressant
D. A monoamine oxidase inhibitor
E. Psychotherapy
Evaluation for a Suicidal patiant.
CASE summary:
A 65-year-old Catholic male patient has been abusing alcohol for the past 15 years. His history reveals that his wife recently asked him for a separation. Which of the following characteristics is this patient’s greatest risk factor for suicide
A. Male sex
B. Religion
C. Marital separation
D. Age
E. Alcoholism
MOOD DISORDERS
CASE STUDY
A person who alternates between episodes of hypomania and moderate depression chronically for at least 2 years would be diagnosed as having:
A. Bipolar I Disorder.
B. Bipolar II Disorder.
C. Cyclothymic disorder.
D. Rapid cycling bipolar disorder.
E. Dysthymic disorder
MOOD DISORDERS
CASE STUDY
The most effective long-term treatment for cyclothymic disorder is
A. lithium
B. psychotherapy
C. ECT
D. A heterocylic antidepressant
E. A monoamine oxidase inhibitor
A 25-year-old male patient who is slow moving and has a flat affect is put on fluoxetine (Prozac). Within 2 weeks, the patient is showing greatly increased activity level, flight of ideas, and pressured speech. In this patient, the medication has
A. precipitated a manic episode
B. had a toxic effect
C. had a delayed effect
D. increased depression
E. increased anxiety
A 50-year-old female high school teacher reports that she has been “feeling very low” for the past 3 months. She often misses work because she feels tires and hopeless and has trouble sleeping. When the physician interviews her she says, “Doctor, the Lord calls all his children home”. This patient is most likely to have
A. cyclothymic disorder
B. major depressive disorder
C. hypomania
D. hypochondriasis
E. bipolar disorder
A 32-year-old woman takes her 6-year-old son to a physician’s office. She says that the child often experiences episodes of breathing problems and abdominal pain. The child’s medical record shows many office visits and four abdominal surgical procedures, although no abnormalities were ever found. Physical examination and laboratory studies are unremarkable. When the doctor confront the mother with the suspicion that she is fabricating the illness in the child, the mother angrily grabs the child and leaves the office immediately. This is an example of
A. malingering
B. somotoform pain disorder
C. factitious disorder
D. conversion disorder
E. factitious disorder by proxy
A 59-year-old woman, who was diagnosed with advanced lung cancer 3-months ago, has lost 20 pounds, wakes frequently during the night, and has very little energy. Over the past month she has been preoccupied with feelings of guilt about “people I have hurt in my life” and expresses concern that she will die in pain. The sign or symptoms most likely to indicate that this patient is experiencing a major depressive episode rather than a normal reaction to serious illness is
A. weight loss
B. difficulty sleeping
C. decreased energy
D. concern about dying in pain
E. preoccupation with feelings of guilt
A 30-yeaer-old man is upset because he must take a client to dinner in a restaurant. Although he knows the client well, he is so afraid of making a mess while eating that he says he is not hungry and sips from a glass of water instead of ordering a meal. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A. Conversion disorder
B. Social phobia
C. GAD
D. Specific phobia
E. Hypochondriasis
MCQ anxiety disorders
A 37-year-old man says that he has been “sickly” for the past 3 months. He fears that he has stomach cancer. The patient is unshaven and appears thin and slowed down. Physical examination including a gastrointestinal workup is unremarkable except that the patient has lost 15 pounds since his last visit 1 year ago. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A. conversion disorder
B. body dismorphic disorder
C. masked depression
D. adjustment disorder
E. Hypochondriasis
A 28-year-old woman seeks facial reconstructive surgery for her “sagging” eyelids. She rarely goes out in the daytime because she believes that this characteristics makes her look “like a grandmother”. On physical examination, her eyelids appear completely normal. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A. conversion disorder
B. body dismorphic disorder
C. GAD
D. OCD
E. Hypochondriasis
Anxiety Disorder
A 34-year-old man experience a sudden hemiparesis, but appears unconcerned. He reports that just before the onset of paralysis, he saw his girlfriend with another man. Physical examination fails to reveal evidence of a medical problem. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A. conversion disorder
B. body dismorphic disorder
C. GAD
D. OCD
E. Hypochondriasis
Anxiety Disorder
A 45-year-old woman claims that she injured her hand at work. She asserts that the pain caused by her injury prevents her from working. She has no further hand problems after she receives a $40,000 workmen’s compensation settlement. This clinical presentation is an example of
A. factitious disorder
B. factitious disorder by proxy
C. malingering
D. conversion disorder
E. masked depression
Anxiety disorder
A 45-year-old woman has a 20-year history of vague physical complaints including nausea, painful menses, and loss of feeling in her legs. Physical examination and laboratory workup are unremarkable. She says that she has always had physical problems but that her doctors never seem to identity their cause. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A. OCD
B. GAD
C. Masked depression
D. Somatization disorder
E. Hypochondriasis
Anxiety Disorder
Which of the following is the most effective long-term treatment for the above case is
A. psychotherapy
B. propranolol
C. buspirone
D. diazepam
E. alprozolam
Anxiety Disorder
A 45-year-old woman says that she frequently feels “nervous” and often has an “upset stomach” which includes heartburn, indigestion and diarrhea. She has had this problem since she was 26 years of age and notes that other family members also are “tense and nervous”. Which of the following disorders best fits this clinical picture?
A. Panic disorder
B. Malingering
C. OCD
D. GAD
E. Acute stress disorder
Anxiety Disorder
Which will be the most effective long-term treatment for the previous case?
A. buspirone
B. a β-blocker
C. an antidepressant
D. a benzodiazepine
E. a support group
Of the following, the most effective treatment for the previous case?
A. buspirone
B. a β-blocker
C. an antidepressant
D. a benzodiazepine
E. a support group
Anxiety Disorder
A 26-year-old medical student comes to the emergency room with increased heart rate, sweating, and shortness of breath. The student is convinced that she is having an asthma attack and that she will suffocate. The symptoms started that she will suffocate. The symptoms started suddenly during a car ride to school. The student has had episodes such as this on at least three previous occasions over the past 2 weeks. She has no history of asthma and other than an increased pulse rate, physical findings are unremarkable. Which of the following disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
B. Panic disorder
C. Acute stress disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
E. Hypochondriasis
Anxiety Disorder
Which of the following events is most likely to result in post-traumatic stress disorder?
A. Divorce
B. Bankruptcy
C. Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
D. Changing residence
E. Robbery at knifepoint
Anxiety Disorders
Based on the previous case, what is the first thing the physician should do?
A. Notify the appropriate state social service agency to report the physician’s suspicions.
B. Call a pediatric pulmonologist to determine the cause of the dyspnea
C. Take the child aside and ask him how he feels
D. Wait until the child’s next visit before taking any action
E. Call a pediatric gastroenterologist to determine the cause of the abdominal pain
Anxiety Disorders
Three months after moving, a teenager who was formerly outgoing and a good student seems sad, loses interest in making friends, and begins to do poor work in school. His appetite in normal and there is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A. adjustment disorder
B. social phobia
C. specific phobia
D. generalized anxiety disorder
E. obsessive compulsive disorder
MCQ Anxiety Disorders
A 32-year-old woman takes her 6-year-old son to a physician’s office. She says that the child often experiences episodes of breathing problems and abdominal pain. The child’s medical record shows many office visits and four abdominal surgical procedures, although no abnormalities were ever found. Physical examination and laboratory studies are unremarkable. When the doctor confront the mother with the suspicion that she is fabricating the illness in the child, the mother angrily grabs the child and leaves the office immediately. This is an example of
A. malingering
B. somotoform pain disorder
C. factitious disorder
D. conversion disorder
E. factitious disorder by proxy
SOME NOTES>>>>>
We already seen that there are three divisions in psychological disorder based on the abnormality., i.e., organic, psychotic and neurotic. Now we can see what are the disorders are comes under these criteria.
1. Organic Mental Disorders
Do you have any idea about the psychological disorders? which are coming under organic mental disorders!!! These are deals with our cognitive parts. The disorder which are coming under this criteria are:
Delirium
Dementia
Alzheimer disease
2.Psychotic Mental Disorder
Psychotic means a pernson having a split brain disorder, that is a person will be not in touch with the reality. Here we can see the person is not oriented to time, place and person. So these person will be out of world and beeing their own world. The disorder which are comming under this criteria are:
Psychosis
Schizophrenia
Paranoid schizophrenia
Delusional disorder
Residual type
Undifferentiated type
Catatonic type and so on.
3. Neurotic Mental Disorder
In this case the person will have in touch with reality and also he or she will be oriented to time, place and person. The disorder which are under this criteria are:
anxeity disorder
post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
panic attach
Acute stress
Phobias and so on.
Psychological Disorders
Psychological disorders can be divide into three criteria.
They are:
1. Psychotic Mental Disorders
2. Neurotic Mental Disorders
3. Organic Mental Disorders
For classifying a psychological disorders, there are two diagnostic systems are available in world wide. They are:
1. DSM-IV-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental disorders IVth Edition - Text
Revised)
2. ICD - 10 (International Classification for Disease)
Based on these diagnostic criteria we are assessing a Mental Disorder.
These mcq's have been taken from http://mcq4psychology.blogspot.com/2007_10_01_archive.html
Sunday, December 23, 2007
MCQ training in Psychology
1.A 32-year-old woman takes her 6-year-old son to a physician’s office. She says that the child often experiences episodes of breathing problems and abdominal pain. The child’s medical record shows many office visits and four abdominal surgical procedures, although no abnormalities were ever found. Physical examination and laboratory studies are unremarkable. When the doctor confront the mother with the suspicion that she is fabricating the illness in the child, the mother angrily grabs the child and leaves the office immediately. This is an example of
A.malingering
B.somotoform pain disorder
C.factitious disorder
D.conversion disorder
E.factitious disorder by proxy
2.From above case, what is the first thing the physician should do?
A.Notify the appropriate state social service agency to report the physician’s suspicions.
B.Call a pediatric pulmonologist to determine the cause of the dyspnea
C.Take the child aside and ask him how he feels
D.Wait until the child’s next visit before taking any action
E.Call a pediatric gastroenterologist to determine the cause of the abdominal pain
3.A 35-year-old man tells his physician that he is often late for wok because he has difficulty waking up on time. He attributes this problem to the fact that he gets out of bed repeatedly during the night to recheck the locks on the doors and to be sure the gas jets on the stove are turned off. His lateness is exacerbated by his need to count all of the traffic lights along the route. If he suspects that he missed a light, he becomes quite anxious and must then go back and recount them all. Physical examination and laboratory studies are unremarkable. Of the following, the most effective long-term treatment for this patient is most likely to be
A.buspirone
B.a β-blocker
C.an antidepressant
D.a benzodiazepine
E.a support group
4.Three months after moving, a teenager who was formerly outgoing and a good student seems sad, loses interest in making friends, and begins to do poor work in school. His appetite in normal and there is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.adjustment disorder
B.social phobia
C.specific phobia
D.generalized anxiety disorder
E.obsessive compulsive disorder
5.Which of the following events is most likely to result in post-traumatic stress disorder?
A.Divorce
B.Bankruptcy
C.Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
D.Changing residence
E.Robbery at knifepoint
6.A 26-year-old medical student comes to the emergency room with increased heart rate, sweating, and shortness of breath. The student is convinced that she is having an asthma attack and that she will suffocate. The symptoms started that she will suffocate. The symptoms started suddenly during a car ride to school. The student has had episodes such as this on at least three previous occasions over the past 2 weeks. She has no history of asthma and other than an increased pulse rate, physical findings are unremarkable. Which of the following disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
B.Panic disorder
C.Acute stress disorder
D.Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
E.Hypochondriasis
7.Of the following, the most effective treatment for the above case?
A.buspirone
B.a β-blocker
C.an antidepressant
D.a benzodiazepine
E.a support group
8.Which will be the most effective long-term treatment for the above case?
A.buspirone
B.a β-blocker
C.an antidepressant
D.a benzodiazepine
E.a support group
9.A 45-year-old woman says that she frequently feels “nervous” and often has an “upset stomach” which includes heartburn, indigestion and diarrhea. She has had this problem since she was 26 years of age and notes that other family members also are “tense and nervous”. Which of the following disorders best fits this clinical picture?
A.Panic disorder
B.Malingering
C.OCD
D.GAD
E.Acute stress disorder
10.Of the following the most effective long-term treatment for the above case is
A.psychotherapy
B.propranolol
C.buspirone
D.diazepam
E.alprozolam
11.A 45-year-old woman has a 20-year history of vague physical complaints including nausea, painful menses, and loss of feeling in her legs. Physical examination and laboratory workup are unremarkable. She says that she has always had physical problems but that her doctors never seem to identity their cause. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.OCD
B.GAD
C.Masked depression
D.Somatization disorder
E.Hypochondriasis
12.A 45-year-old woman claims that she injured her hand at work. She asserts that the pain caused by her injury prevents her from working. She has no further hand problems after she receives a $40,000 workmen’s compensation settlement. This clinical presentation is an example of
A.factitious disorder
B.factitious disorder by proxy
C.malingering
D.conversion disorder
E.masked depression
13.A 34-year-old man experience a sudden hemiparesis, but appears unconcerned. He reports that just before the onset of paralysis, he saw his girlfriend with another man. Physical examination fails to reveal evidence of a medical problem. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.conversion disorder
B.body dismorphic disorder
C.GAD
D.OCD
E.Hypochondriasis
14.A 28-year-old woman seeks facial reconstructive surgery for her “sagging” eyelids. She rarely goes out in the daytime because she believes that this characteristics makes her look “like a grandmother”. On physical examination, her eyelids appear completely normal. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.conversion disorder
B.body dismorphic disorder
C.GAD
D.OCD
E.Hypochondriasis
15.A 37-year-old man says that he has been “sickly” for the past 3 months. He fears that he has stomach cancer. The patient is unshaven and appears thin and slowed down. Physical examination including a gastrointestinal workup is unremarkable except that the patient has lost 15 pounds since his last visit 1 year ago. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.conversion disorder
B.body dismorphic disorder
C.masked depression
D.adjustment disorder
E.Hypochondriasis
16.A 30-yeaer-old man is upset because he must take a client to dinner in a restaurant. Although he knows the client well, he is so afraid of making a mess while eating that he says he is not hungry and sips from a glass of water instead of ordering a meal. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.Conversion disorder
B.Social phobia
C.GAD
D.Specific phobia
E.Hypochondriasis
17.A 59-year-old woman, who was diagnosed with advanced lung cancer 3-months ago, has lost 20 pounds, wakes frequently during the night, and has very little energy. Over the past month she has been preoccupied with feelings of guilt about “people I have hurt in my life” and expresses concern that she will die in pain. The sign or symptoms most likely to indicate that this patient is experiencing a major depressive episode rather than a normal reaction to serious illness is
A.weight loss
B.difficulty sleeping
C.decreased energy
D.concern about dying in pain
E.preoccupation with feelings of guilt
18.A 50-year-old female high school teacher reports that she has been “feeling very low” for the past 3 months. She often misses work because she feels tires and hopeless and has trouble sleeping. When the physician interviews her she says, “Doctor, the Lord calls all his children home”. This patient is most likely to have
A.cyclothymic disorder
B.major depressive disorder
C.hypomania
D.hypochondriasis
E.bipolar disorder
19.In ____________, people experience either severe depressions or mania.
A.bipolar I disorder
B.dysthymia
C.depression with atypical features
D.double depression
E.bipolar II disorder
20.A 25-year-old male patient who is slow moving and has a flat affect is put on fluoxetine (Prozac). Within 2 weeks, the patient is showing greatly increased activity level, flight of ideas, and pressured speech. In this patient, the medication has
A.precipitated a manic episode
B.had a toxic effect
C.had a delayed effect
D.increased depression
E.increased anxiety
21.The most effective long-term treatment for cyclothymic disorder is
A.lithium
B.psychotherapy
C.ECT
D.A heterocylic antidepressant
E.A monoamine oxidase inhibitor
22.A person who alternates between episodes of hypomania and moderate depression chronically for at least 2 years would be diagnosed as having:
A.Bipolar I Disorder.
B.Bipolar II Disorder.
C.Cyclothymic disorder.
D.Rapid cycling bipolar disorder.
E.Dysthymic disorder
23.A 65-year-old Catholic male patient has been abusing alcohol for the past 15 years. His history reveals that his wife recently asked him for a separation. Which of the following characteristics is this patient’s greatest risk factor for suicide
A.Male sex
B.Religion
C.Marital separation
D.Age
E.Alcoholism
24.The most effective treatment for mania is
A.ECT
B.Lithium
C.A heterocyclic antidepressant
D.A monoamine oxidase inhibitor
E.Psychotherapy
25.A person who had been experiencing (for the past 3 years) a mild form of a loss of interest in his or her usual activities, in addition to psychomotor agitation, increased appetite, insomnia, and thoughts of committing suicide, would be diagnosed as having:
A.Cyclothymic disorder
B.Biplolar II disorder.
C.Major depression.
D.Dysthymia
E.Double depression.
26.Which Diagnostic System is followed by American Psychological Association?
A.ISD
B.WISC
C.DSM IV TR
D.BOTH ISD AND DSM
These r from http://mcq4psychology.blogspot.com/
A.malingering
B.somotoform pain disorder
C.factitious disorder
D.conversion disorder
E.factitious disorder by proxy
2.From above case, what is the first thing the physician should do?
A.Notify the appropriate state social service agency to report the physician’s suspicions.
B.Call a pediatric pulmonologist to determine the cause of the dyspnea
C.Take the child aside and ask him how he feels
D.Wait until the child’s next visit before taking any action
E.Call a pediatric gastroenterologist to determine the cause of the abdominal pain
3.A 35-year-old man tells his physician that he is often late for wok because he has difficulty waking up on time. He attributes this problem to the fact that he gets out of bed repeatedly during the night to recheck the locks on the doors and to be sure the gas jets on the stove are turned off. His lateness is exacerbated by his need to count all of the traffic lights along the route. If he suspects that he missed a light, he becomes quite anxious and must then go back and recount them all. Physical examination and laboratory studies are unremarkable. Of the following, the most effective long-term treatment for this patient is most likely to be
A.buspirone
B.a β-blocker
C.an antidepressant
D.a benzodiazepine
E.a support group
4.Three months after moving, a teenager who was formerly outgoing and a good student seems sad, loses interest in making friends, and begins to do poor work in school. His appetite in normal and there is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.adjustment disorder
B.social phobia
C.specific phobia
D.generalized anxiety disorder
E.obsessive compulsive disorder
5.Which of the following events is most likely to result in post-traumatic stress disorder?
A.Divorce
B.Bankruptcy
C.Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
D.Changing residence
E.Robbery at knifepoint
6.A 26-year-old medical student comes to the emergency room with increased heart rate, sweating, and shortness of breath. The student is convinced that she is having an asthma attack and that she will suffocate. The symptoms started that she will suffocate. The symptoms started suddenly during a car ride to school. The student has had episodes such as this on at least three previous occasions over the past 2 weeks. She has no history of asthma and other than an increased pulse rate, physical findings are unremarkable. Which of the following disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
B.Panic disorder
C.Acute stress disorder
D.Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
E.Hypochondriasis
7.Of the following, the most effective treatment for the above case?
A.buspirone
B.a β-blocker
C.an antidepressant
D.a benzodiazepine
E.a support group
8.Which will be the most effective long-term treatment for the above case?
A.buspirone
B.a β-blocker
C.an antidepressant
D.a benzodiazepine
E.a support group
9.A 45-year-old woman says that she frequently feels “nervous” and often has an “upset stomach” which includes heartburn, indigestion and diarrhea. She has had this problem since she was 26 years of age and notes that other family members also are “tense and nervous”. Which of the following disorders best fits this clinical picture?
A.Panic disorder
B.Malingering
C.OCD
D.GAD
E.Acute stress disorder
10.Of the following the most effective long-term treatment for the above case is
A.psychotherapy
B.propranolol
C.buspirone
D.diazepam
E.alprozolam
11.A 45-year-old woman has a 20-year history of vague physical complaints including nausea, painful menses, and loss of feeling in her legs. Physical examination and laboratory workup are unremarkable. She says that she has always had physical problems but that her doctors never seem to identity their cause. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.OCD
B.GAD
C.Masked depression
D.Somatization disorder
E.Hypochondriasis
12.A 45-year-old woman claims that she injured her hand at work. She asserts that the pain caused by her injury prevents her from working. She has no further hand problems after she receives a $40,000 workmen’s compensation settlement. This clinical presentation is an example of
A.factitious disorder
B.factitious disorder by proxy
C.malingering
D.conversion disorder
E.masked depression
13.A 34-year-old man experience a sudden hemiparesis, but appears unconcerned. He reports that just before the onset of paralysis, he saw his girlfriend with another man. Physical examination fails to reveal evidence of a medical problem. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.conversion disorder
B.body dismorphic disorder
C.GAD
D.OCD
E.Hypochondriasis
14.A 28-year-old woman seeks facial reconstructive surgery for her “sagging” eyelids. She rarely goes out in the daytime because she believes that this characteristics makes her look “like a grandmother”. On physical examination, her eyelids appear completely normal. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.conversion disorder
B.body dismorphic disorder
C.GAD
D.OCD
E.Hypochondriasis
15.A 37-year-old man says that he has been “sickly” for the past 3 months. He fears that he has stomach cancer. The patient is unshaven and appears thin and slowed down. Physical examination including a gastrointestinal workup is unremarkable except that the patient has lost 15 pounds since his last visit 1 year ago. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.conversion disorder
B.body dismorphic disorder
C.masked depression
D.adjustment disorder
E.Hypochondriasis
16.A 30-yeaer-old man is upset because he must take a client to dinner in a restaurant. Although he knows the client well, he is so afraid of making a mess while eating that he says he is not hungry and sips from a glass of water instead of ordering a meal. Which disorder best fits this clinical picture?
A.Conversion disorder
B.Social phobia
C.GAD
D.Specific phobia
E.Hypochondriasis
17.A 59-year-old woman, who was diagnosed with advanced lung cancer 3-months ago, has lost 20 pounds, wakes frequently during the night, and has very little energy. Over the past month she has been preoccupied with feelings of guilt about “people I have hurt in my life” and expresses concern that she will die in pain. The sign or symptoms most likely to indicate that this patient is experiencing a major depressive episode rather than a normal reaction to serious illness is
A.weight loss
B.difficulty sleeping
C.decreased energy
D.concern about dying in pain
E.preoccupation with feelings of guilt
18.A 50-year-old female high school teacher reports that she has been “feeling very low” for the past 3 months. She often misses work because she feels tires and hopeless and has trouble sleeping. When the physician interviews her she says, “Doctor, the Lord calls all his children home”. This patient is most likely to have
A.cyclothymic disorder
B.major depressive disorder
C.hypomania
D.hypochondriasis
E.bipolar disorder
19.In ____________, people experience either severe depressions or mania.
A.bipolar I disorder
B.dysthymia
C.depression with atypical features
D.double depression
E.bipolar II disorder
20.A 25-year-old male patient who is slow moving and has a flat affect is put on fluoxetine (Prozac). Within 2 weeks, the patient is showing greatly increased activity level, flight of ideas, and pressured speech. In this patient, the medication has
A.precipitated a manic episode
B.had a toxic effect
C.had a delayed effect
D.increased depression
E.increased anxiety
21.The most effective long-term treatment for cyclothymic disorder is
A.lithium
B.psychotherapy
C.ECT
D.A heterocylic antidepressant
E.A monoamine oxidase inhibitor
22.A person who alternates between episodes of hypomania and moderate depression chronically for at least 2 years would be diagnosed as having:
A.Bipolar I Disorder.
B.Bipolar II Disorder.
C.Cyclothymic disorder.
D.Rapid cycling bipolar disorder.
E.Dysthymic disorder
23.A 65-year-old Catholic male patient has been abusing alcohol for the past 15 years. His history reveals that his wife recently asked him for a separation. Which of the following characteristics is this patient’s greatest risk factor for suicide
A.Male sex
B.Religion
C.Marital separation
D.Age
E.Alcoholism
24.The most effective treatment for mania is
A.ECT
B.Lithium
C.A heterocyclic antidepressant
D.A monoamine oxidase inhibitor
E.Psychotherapy
25.A person who had been experiencing (for the past 3 years) a mild form of a loss of interest in his or her usual activities, in addition to psychomotor agitation, increased appetite, insomnia, and thoughts of committing suicide, would be diagnosed as having:
A.Cyclothymic disorder
B.Biplolar II disorder.
C.Major depression.
D.Dysthymia
E.Double depression.
26.Which Diagnostic System is followed by American Psychological Association?
A.ISD
B.WISC
C.DSM IV TR
D.BOTH ISD AND DSM
These r from http://mcq4psychology.blogspot.com/
Friday, December 7, 2007
AIIMS NOVEMBER 2007 MCQs Question Paper
1. All of the following are sources of Ω-3 PUFA except:
a. Mustard oil
b. Groundnut oil
c. Corn oil
d. Fish oil
2. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attched to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal:
a. Peroneus brevis
b. Peroneus longus
c. Peroneus tertius
d. Extensor digitorum brevis
3. Kanavel’s sign is seen in:
a. Tenosynovitis
b. Dupuyteren’s contracture
c. Carpal tunnel syndrome
d. Trigger finger
4. Staging of bone tumours is done by:
a. Enneking
b. Manchester
c. Edmonton
d. TNM
5. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except:
a. Deep myometrial invasion
b. Pelvic lymph node involvement
c. Enlarged uterine cavity
d. Poor tumour differentiation
6. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:
a. Dedifferentiation
b. Redifferentiation
c. Transdifferentiation
d. Subdifferentiation
7. ‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in:
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Uncorrected TGA
c. Tricuspid atresia
d. Ebstein’s anomaly
8. All are essential components of TOF except:
a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Infundibular stenosis
d. Aorta overriding
9. Hampton’s hump is seen in:
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Tuberculosis
c. Bronchogenic Ca
d. ..
10. All of the following can be used for thromboprophylaxis except:
a. Heparin
b. Aspirin
c. Warfarin
d. Antithrombin-III
11. ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no prefious significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Vasovagal shock
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Complete heart block
d. Temporal lobe epilepsy
12. Uppermost structure seen at the hilus of the left lung is:
a. Pulmonary artery
b. Pulmonary vein
c. Bronchus
d. Bronchial artery
13. The best investigation is thromboembolism is:
a. D-dimer levels
b. Multicentric CT angiography
c. Colour Doppler USG
d. Intracatheter angiography
14. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except:
a. Loop diuretics
b. Lithium
c. Vitamin D intoxication
d. ..
15. Nephelometry is:
a. Lambert-Beer law
b. Scattering of light by particulate solution
c. Defraction of light
d. Decreased intensity of light
16. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is:
a. Intradural extramedullary
b. Extradural
c. Intramedullary
d. All have equal distribution
17. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on non-contrast CT scan of the brain is seen in:
a. Alexander’s disease
b. Krabbe’s ds.
c. Canavan’s ds
d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy
18. A 2-year old child presents with scattered lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly associated is:
a. CD1a
b. CD57
c. CD3
d. CD68
19. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery:
a. Atenolol
b. Amlodepine
c. Statins
d. Metformin
20. Which of the following is not included in intensive management of diabetes mellitus:
a. Pregnancy..
b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy
c. DM with acute MI
d. Post kidney transplant
21. VHL syndrome includes all except:
a. Endolymphatic sac tumours
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Hemangioendotheliomas
d. Islet cell tumours
22. All but one acts via GABAA except:
a. Thiopentone
b. Midazolam
c. Zolpidem
d. Promethazine
23. Which of the following is not used as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect:
a. Digitalis,anti-arrhythmics
b. Antihistaminics,antidepressants
c. Macrolides,…
d. ..
24. Caspases are involved in:
a. Apoptosis
b. ..
c. ..
d. ..
25. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally characterized by:
a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
b. Depletion of glycogen
c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum
d. Perinuclear staining
26. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to:
a. Brachyury gene
b. BMPR-4
c. Nodal gene
d. FGF-8
27. HACEK group includes all except:
a. Hemophilus aprophillus
b. Acinetobacter baumanni
c. Eikenella corrodens
d. Cardiobacterium hominis
28. All are true about Thiopentone except:
a. NaHCO3 is a preservative
b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias
c. Agent of choice in shock
d. Cerebroprotective
29. All regarding Mivacurium are true except:
a. Larger doses speed the onset of action
b. Bronchospasm
c. Flushing
d. Hypertension
30. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis. Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:(do not remember the exact question but it was a straight forward question):
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. H.ducreyi
c. Treponema pallidum
d. ..
31. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using:
a. M protein
b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall
c. Group C carbohydrate antigen
d. ..
32. Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c. Atracurium
d. Fentanyl
33. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is:
a. HBV-DNA polymerase
b. IgG anti-HBc
c. Core antigen (HbcAg)
d. Anti-HbsAg
34. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all except:
a. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand
b. Weakness of the hypothenar muscles
c. Claw hand
d. Adductor pollicis paralysis
35. After fracture of the penis ( injury to the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at:
a. The penis and scrotum
b. At the perineum in a butterfly shape
c. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall
d. Shaft of the penis only.
36. Floating ‘Water-Lily’ sign is seen in:
a. Hydatid ds.
b. Aspergillosis
c. Tuberculous cavity
d. ..
37. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip:
a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Medial rotation
d. Lateral rotation
38. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:
a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery
b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery
c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery
d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery
39. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between:
a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral artery
b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery
c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular artery
40. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs in maintained by increased blood flow through:
a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels
b. Intercostal and Superior epigastric
c. Subcostal and Umbilical
d. …
41. Which of the following is correctly matched:
a. B cells – Somatostain
b. D cells – Insulin
c. G cells – Gastrin
d. …..
42. Exercise causes:
a. Increased blood flow to the muscles after half minute of minute
b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure
c. Body temperature rise
d. …
43. All of the following occur when the blood flows through the capillaries except:
a. Increase in hematocrit
b. Hb curve shifts to the left
c. Increased protein content
d. Decrease in pH
44. When a person changes position from standing to lying down position, following occurs:
a. Heart rate increases and settles at a higher level
b. Venous return to the heart rises immediately
c. Cerebral blood flow becomes more than that in standing position and settles at a higher level
d. Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex
45. In mitral valve prolapse, the histological finding is:
a. Hyalinization of the valve
b. Fibrinoid necrosis
c. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve
d. ..
46. Regarding flourosis all are true except:
a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children
b. Deposition occurs in the skeletal system and muscles
c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique
d. Genu valgum
47. SAFE strategy is recommended for:
a. Trachoma
b. Glaucoma
c. Diabetic retinopathy
d. Cataract
48. Telefona is:
a. Beating on the feet ( soles )
b. Pulling of hair
c. Beating on both the ears
d. ..
49. A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia to you. She had suffered from typhoid fever 4 months back. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Androgenetic alopecia
b. Telogen effluvium
c. Anagen effluvium
d. Alopecia areata
50. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing alopecia except:
a. Lichen planus
b. Discoid lupus erythematosus
c. Alopecia areata
d. Lupus vulgaris
51. Learning does not include:
a. Modelling
b. Catharsis
c. Exposure
d. Sensitization
52. In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened is:
a. Head
b. Neck
c. Thorax
d. Abdomen
53. Acridine orange is used as a stain for:
a. DNA and RNA
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrate
d. Lipids
54. PAS does not stain:
a. Fungal cell wall
b. Basement membrane of bacteria
c. Glycogen
d. Lipids
55. Not used to stain fats:
a. Oil red O
b. Congo red
c. Sudan III
d. Sudan black
56. Peroxidase is used to detect:
a. Glucose
b. Ammonia
c. Hemoglobin
d. Creatinine
57. Hemoglobin estimation is not done by:
a. Drabkin’s method
b. Sahli’s method
c. Spectrometry
d. Wintrobe’s method
58. All of the following are included in grievous hurt except:
a. Loss of testis
b. Loss of eye
c. Loss of kidney
d. Abrasion of the face
59. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is:
a. Astereognosis
b. Hemiparesis
c. Hemisensoriloss
d. No neurological deficit
60. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except:
a. B/L renal artery stenosis
b. End stage renal disease
c. Cushing’s disease
d. Primary hyperaldosteronism
61. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except:
a. Beta blockers
b. Glucocorticoids
c. ..
d. ..
62. Cushing’s disease includes all except:
a. Central obesity
b. Episodic hypertension
c. Easy bruisability
d. Glucose intolerance
63. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all except:
a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon
b. It involves entire / part of the large colon
c. It occurs after previous surgery
d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use
64. One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries:
a. Ascending colon
b. Hepatic flexure
c. Splenic flexure
d. Descending colon
65. Regarding Phenytoin,false is:
a. Induces microsomal enzymes
b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life
d. Highly protein bound
66. Most potent anti-emetic is:
a. Ondansetron
b. Granisetron
c. Dolasetron
d. Pavalosetron
67. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except:
a. Factor VIII
b. Factor IX
c. Von Willebrand factor
d. Fibrinogen
68. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except:
a. Tacrolimus
b. Metformin
c. Cyclosporine
d. Phenytoin
69. Not a measure of central tendency:
a. Mode
b. Range
c. Variable
d. Standard deviation
70. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except:
a. HSG
b. Hysteroscopy
c. Endometrial culture
d. Saline infusion USG
71. Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans act through:
a. 5HT-1A
b. 5HT-1B
c. 5HT-1F
d. 5HT-3
72. True about protease inhibitors are all except:
a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by mdr-1 gene
b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism
c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions
d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4
73. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to:
a. Subphrenic abscess
b. CO2 narcosis
c. Positioning of the patient
d. Compression of the lung
74. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is:
a. Thayer-martin
b. TCBS medium
c. Scirrow’s medium
d. ..
75. Primary impact injury is seen externally most commonly in the:
a. Head
b. Chest
c. Legs
d. Abdomen
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76. In tandem [bleep], the number of [bleep] fired are:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
77. For biochemical analysis vitrous in sent in:
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Phenol
c. Formalin
d. Fluoride
78. The agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Acetone
c. Formalin
d. Xylol
79. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by:
a. Sodium hypochlorite
b. Iodine
c. Absolute alcohol
d. Quarternary ammonium compounds
80. Which of the following person is present in a sub centre:
a. Multipurpose worker
b. Laboratory technician
c. Health educator
d. Medical officer
81. True about dietary allowance are all except:
a. Adequate intake
b. RDA
c. Dietary intake according to food composition
d. Food intake according to the upper limit of the RDA
82. Most common type of seizures in neonates are:
a. Clonic
b. Tonic
c. Subtle
d. Myoclonic
83. Gall bladder epithelium is:
a. Simple squamous
b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
c. Simple columnar
d. Simple columnar with brush border
84. After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What would you do next?
a. Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
b. Observation in hospital
c. Surgical drainage
d. Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks
85. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. On examination it is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending till below the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The thyroid examination is normal. What should be done next?
a. Percutaneous aspiration
b. I.V. antibiotics
c. Surgical removal
d. Observation
86. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in:
a. Mineralocortoid excess
b. Increased excretion of base
c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion
d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids
87. Goniometry is measurement of:
a. Number of gonococci
b. Length of the genital hiatus
c. Urethrovesical angle
d. ..
88. Good Clinical Practices (GCPs) are not a part of:
a. Preclinical studies
b. Phase I studies
c. Phase II studies
d. Phase IV studies
89. A 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, weight loss and milky discharge from the pages . Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Occult carcinoma
c. Hypothyroidism
d. HIV
90. Mirena is:
a. Used in abortion
b. Anti-progesterone
c. Progesterone IUCD
d. Hormonal implant
91. Bisphosphonates are not used in:
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Osteoporosis
c. Cancer
d. Vitamin D intoxication
92. True about vitiligo are all except:
a. Topical steroids give good results
b. Genetic predisposition
c. PUVA-B is used for the treatment
d. Leukotrichia is associated with good prognosis
93. In osteomalacia, all are true except:
a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
b. Increased serum calcium
c. Looser’s zones
d. Proximal myopathy
94. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
95. FNAC needle gauge size is:
a. 26 – 28
b. 22 – 26
c. 18 – 22
d. 16 – 18
96. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line:
a. Innermost intercostals
b. Transverses thoracis
c. External intercostals
d. Internal intercostals
97. Dangerous area of the face is:
a. Ciliary body
b. Sclera
c. Optic nerve
d. Retina
[snip]. PCR requires:
a. Li++
b. Ca++
c. Na++
d. Mg++
99. Urothelium does not line:
a. Collecting ducts
b. Minor calyx
c. Ureter
d. Urinary bladder
100. Ureteric peristalsis is due to:
a. Sympathetic innervation
b. Parasympathetic innervation
c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle cells in the renal pelvis
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101. Uterine relaxant with the least side effect:
a. Ritodrine
b. MgSO4
c. Nifedipine
d. Progesterone
102. In Primary Pulmonary Hypertension all are seen except:
a. Hyperventilation
b. Morbid obesity
c. Fenfluramine
d. High altitude
103. Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is:
a. Foramen of Monro
b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle
c. Trigone of the lateral ventricle
d. Fourth ventricle
104. According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is:
a. Caudate lobe
b. Quadrate lobe
c. Left lobe
d. Right lobe
105. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called:
a. Right dominance
b. Left dominance
c. Balanced dominance
d. ..
106. Not a feature of DKA is:
a. Tachypnoea
b. Bradycardia
c. Abdominal pain
d. Dehydration
107. In Down’s syndrome, false is:
a. Increased PAPP-A
b. Increased β-HCG
c. Absent nasal bone
d. Reversal of diastolic blood flow
108. With CSF all are true except:
a. Persistent leakage causes headache
b. Neutrophils are normally not present
c. pH is less than that of blood
d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi
109. Fractional excretion of Na++
a. Pre-renal azotemia
b. ATN
c. Intrinsic renal failure
d. Renal artery stenosis
110. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
a. Reduvid bug
b. Trombiculid mite
c. Enteric pathogens
d. Cyclops
111. Kala-azar, vector is:
a. Flea
b. Tsetse fly
c. Sand fly
d. ..
112. Regarding genital development, true is:
a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week
c. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals
d. Genital development is complete by 10th week
113. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except:
a. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
b. Wide separated collagen bands
c. Hydration of the corneal epithelium
d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers
114. Regarding furosemide, true is:
a. Given by parenteral route only
b. Used in pulmonary oedema
c. Acts at the PCT
d. ..
115. Basement membrane consists of all except:
a. Laminin
b. Nidogenin
c. Entactin
d. Rhodopsin
116. Thiazides cause all except:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Increased calcium excretion
c. Increased uric acid excretion
d. Useful in congestive heart failure
117. Fast axonal transport is by all except:
a. Dynenin
b. Kinesin
c. Microfilaments
d. Neurofilaments
118. Most common tumor is NF-1 is:
a. Astrocytoma
b. Optic tract glioma
c. Glioblastoma multiforme
d. ..
119. Regarding type A personality, false is:
a. Hostility
b. Time pressure
c. Competitiveness
d. Mood fluctuations
120. Not included in the National Immunisation Programme is:
a. Tetanus toxoid
b. Hepatitis B
c. BCG
d. Measles
121. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except:
a. PNH
b. Megaloblastic anaemia
c. Myelodysplastic anaemia
d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia
122. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:
a. Isthmus of the thyroid
b. Inferior thyroid artery
c. Thyroidea ima
d. Inferior thyroid vein
123. A newborn female child, weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is:
a. Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection
b. Meconium aspiration syndrome
c. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
d. Disseminated HSV infection
124. All are characteristics of schizophrenia except:
a. Third person auditory hallucinations
b. Inappropriate emotions
c. Long stretches of mood changes
d. Formal thought disorder
125. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect in:
a. β2 – microglobulin
b. Transthyretin
c. AANF
d. Pyrin
126. Perforators are not present at the:
a. Ankle
b. Distal calf
c. Mid thigh
d. Below the inguinal ligament
127. Increase in maternal serum AFP levels is seen in:
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Molar pregnancy
c. Over estimated gestational age
d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome
128. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to:
a. Atrial contraction
b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium
c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed
d. ..
129. Tongue develops from:
a. Occipital somites
b. Mesoderm of the pharyngeal pouch
c. Cervical somites
d. ..
130. Prions consist of:
a. DNA and RNA
b. DNA, RNA and proteins
c. RNA and proteins
d. Only proteins
131. Polyhydramnios is associated with all except:
a. ..
b. ..
c. Bilateral renal agenesis
d. ..
132. Shock lung is characterized histologically by:
a. Diffuse alveolar oedema
b. Hemosiderosis
c. Interstitial pneumonia
d. Pulmonary oedema
133. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except:
a. RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants
b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults
c. ..
d. ..
134. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of transeverse lie is associated with the following complication:
a. Uterine rupture
b. Vaginal laceration
c. Uterine atony
d. Cervical laceration
135. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with an existing heart disease, which is contraindicated:
a. Misoprostol
b. Methyl ergometrine
c. Oxytocin
d. ..
136. A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is:
a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy
b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
d. Total laryngectomy
137. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to other hypnotics is:
a. They alter sleep pattern more than other hypnotics
b. More sedative than other hypnotics
c. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics
d. ..
138. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be:
a. Administer Dinoprostone
b. Administer Progesterone
c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch
d. Apply McDonald’s stitch
139. A female come with complaints of chest pain.On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by:
a. Deep cardiac plexus
b. Superficial cardiac plexus
c. Phrenic nerve
d. Subcostal nerve
140. The mechanism of action of surfactant is:
a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion
c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic
d. ..
141. A 12 year old girl presents with Acute rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have:
a. Increased peak expiratory flow
b. Increased total lung capacity
c. Increased residual volume
d. Decreased functional residual capacity
142. Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from:
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. Collecting duct
d. Thick ascending loop of Henle
143. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is:
a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria
b. ..
c. ..
d. ..
144. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is:
a. The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase
b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes and phagosomes
c. There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane
d. ..
145. Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:
a. Evaluation
b. Monitoring
c. Input - output analysis
d. Network analysis
146. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation:
a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte
b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid
d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid
147. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for:
a. FSH
b. LH
c. Inhibin
d. ..
148. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except:
a. Sperm count > 20 million
b. Volume > 1 ml
c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria)
d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 %
149. 18 year old male presents with pectus excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination there is mild pectus excavatum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if he has:
a. FEV1 / FVC less than 0.60
b. Limiation of maximum inspiration during exercise
c. Peak work capacity 60% of expected
d. Functional work capacity 80% of expected
150. Following is associated with maximum risk of invasive carcinoma of cervix:
a. Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
b. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
c. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HPV-16
d. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HIV
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151. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by:
a. Maternal deaths/live birth
b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births
c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births
d. Maternal deaths/100000 population
152. In HIV window period indicates:
a. Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms
b. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
c. .
d. .
153. In an epidemic the first case of come to the notice of the investigator is:
a. Index case
b. Primary case
c. Secondary case
d. Tertiary case
154. In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen except:
a. HbsAg
b. IgM anti-HbcAg
c. HbeAg
d. Anti-HbsAg
155. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:
a. Chronic hepatitis B with…
b. Alcoholic hepatitis
c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis
d. Hemochromatosis
156. Councilman bodies are seen in:
a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Acute viral hepatitis
d. ..
157. Altered perception of real objects is:
a. Illusion
b. Delusion
c. Hallucination
d. Delirium
158. Epidemic Dropsy is due to:
a. BOAA
b. Sanguinarine
c. Aflatoxin
d. ..
159. Vitamin K is required for:
a. Carboxylation
b. Hydroxylation
c. ..
d. ..
160. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease:
a. Immigration of healthy persons
b. Increased cure rate of the disease
c. Longer duration of the disease
d. ..
161. A 30 year old male patient presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base. The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his management will be:
a. Proton pump inhibitors
b. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and pyloroplasty
c. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and truncal vagotomy with antrectomy
d. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer
162. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the following order:
a. Abdomen – Neck
b. Chest – Abdomen – Neck
c. Abdomen – Chest – Neck
d. Chest – Neck
163. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all except:
a. Polycystic ovarian disease
b. Multiple pregnancies
c. Ovarian cancer
d. Teratogenecity
164. Regarding National Polio Surveillance all are tru except:
a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases found
b. ..
c. ..
d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done in children
165. True about polioviruses is:
a. Most cases are symptomatic
b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce spastic paralysis
c. ..
d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less than 3 years of age
166. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now?
a. Re-start the immunization according to age
b. Give BCG, Measles, and second doses of OPV and DPT
c. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
d. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
167. Regarding nitric oxide, false is:
a. Seen in the lung of smokers
b. Increases cAMP levels
c. Used to treat hypertension
d. ..
168. True about fibrates is all except:
a. (MOA)….PPARα….lipoprotein lipase…decreased LDL…
b. Absorped better on empty stomach and decreased on food intake
c. Side effects include rash, myalgia, impotence and many others
d. They are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and…
169. In a survey, mamny children are examinedand were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial cancers are most likely to be associated with which anomaly:
a. Medullary sponge kidney
b. Bladder extrophy
c. Unilateral renal agenesis
d. Double ureter
170. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders:
a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders
b. Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members
c. Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity
d. ..
171. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is:
a. Screening
b. Surveillance
c. Case finding
d. Notification
172. Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is based on:
a. Unconscious conflict
b. Maladjusted reinforcement
c. Organic neurological problem
d. ..
173. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the person is:
a. Immune to diphtheria
b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
c. Susceptible to diphtheria
d. Carrier of diphtheria
174. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is:
a. Deep invasion is not seen
b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity
c. Metachromatic granules are seen
d. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change
175. Primary Health Care is:
a. Health for all
b. ..
c. ..
d. ..
176. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the highest?
a. Coarcatation of aorta
b. Eisenmenger’s complex
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Mitral stenosis
177. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pumps are inhibited by:
a. Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis
b. Activation of anaerobic glycolysis
c. Activation of cAMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors
d. Interference with electron chain transport
178. About myocardial O2 demand, true is:
a. Inverse relation with heart rate
b. Inverse relation to systemic hypertension
c. Constant relation to external work done
d. Negligible in quiescent heart
179. Not a part of informed consent is:
a. ..
b. ..
c. ..
d. Concealed information…..
180. Proteins which are different in peptide sequence but have a similar structure are said to be:
a. Convergent
b. Divergent
c. Opportunistic
d. ..
181. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings having pituitary involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis:
a. MEN 1
b. MEN 2A
c. MEN 2B
d. MEN 2C
182. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Glomerulonephritis
b. Ca-Urinary bladder
c. Ureteral calculus
d. ..
183. Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?
a. School teachers
b. Medical officers of health centers
c. Ophthalmologists
d. Health assistants
184. A 71/2 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Post viral syndrome
b. Bronchiolitis obliterans
c. Follicular bronchitis
d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis
185. A 2 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe and fever. Your next investigation would be:
a. Bronchoscopy
b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx
c. CT scan of the chest
d. Allergen sensitivity test
186. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney is due to:
a. Congenital renal defect
b. Obstructive uropathy
c. Intrauterine infections and scar
d. Is a normal variety
187. A child presents with history of respitory infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis:
a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements
b. Nasal electrode potential difference
c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours
d. DNA analysis for Δ508 mutation
188. A term infant has not passed meconium for 48 hours. He presents with distension of abdomen and emesis since one day. Next most appropriate investigation would be:
a. Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis
b. Manometry
c. Lower bowel contrast enema
d. Oesophagoscopy
189. A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in the pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:
a. Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks
b. IV antibiotics and follow up after a month
c. Tympanoplasty
d. Tympano-mastoid exploration
190. A 18 year old primigravida complained of decreased fetal movements. She delivered a baby weighing 2000gms at 30 weeks of gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes respectively. The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem examination revealed multiple, peripheral, radially arranged cysts in the kidney. Most common associated finding in the baby would be:
a. Holoprosencephaly
b. Hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis
c. Ureteral agenesis
d. Medullary sponge kidney
191. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
a. MRI of the brain
b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
d. Inferior meatus puncture
192. A 71/2 year old child presents with non-blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee. Urine analysis shows proteinurea + and hematuris +++. On kidney biopsy which finding will be most commonly seen:
a. Fusion of podocytes
b. Acute tubular necrosis
c. Deposition of IgA
d. Thickened basement membrane
193. In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is seen:
a. Hypertrophy and degeneration of the visceral epithelium
b. Proliferation of the parietal epithelium
c. Tuft necrosis
d. Mesangiolysis
194. Which vaccine should not be given to a child suffering from convulsions?
a. Measles
b. BCG
c. DPT
d. OPV
195. Not seen in SIADH is:
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypouricemia
c. Volume depletion
d. ..
196. A 40 year old man, smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevations suggesting an inferior wall infarction. Next step in the management would be:
a. Aspirin
b. Thrombolytic therapy
c. Pantoprazole
d. Beta-blockers
197. The ureter develops from:
a. Metanephros
b. Mesonephros
c. Mesonephric duct
d. Paramesonephric duct
198. A child presented with respiratory distress.was broght to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. Now intubated. Chest x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdomen. His Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What is the next step?
a. Remove the Endotracheal tube
b. Put a nasogastric tube
c. Surgery
d. Tube thoracostomy
199. OC pills are contraindicated in patients receiving:
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Streptomycin
d. Pyrazinamide
200. A patient is on a Low calcium diet for 6 weeks. He is most likely to have:
a. Raised parathyroid hormone levels
b. Raised calcitonin levels
c. Increased phosphate levels
a. Mustard oil
b. Groundnut oil
c. Corn oil
d. Fish oil
2. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attched to the tuberosity of the 5th metatarsal:
a. Peroneus brevis
b. Peroneus longus
c. Peroneus tertius
d. Extensor digitorum brevis
3. Kanavel’s sign is seen in:
a. Tenosynovitis
b. Dupuyteren’s contracture
c. Carpal tunnel syndrome
d. Trigger finger
4. Staging of bone tumours is done by:
a. Enneking
b. Manchester
c. Edmonton
d. TNM
5. Post-operative radiotherapy in a patient operated for Ca-endometrium is indicated in all of the following except:
a. Deep myometrial invasion
b. Pelvic lymph node involvement
c. Enlarged uterine cavity
d. Poor tumour differentiation
6. When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:
a. Dedifferentiation
b. Redifferentiation
c. Transdifferentiation
d. Subdifferentiation
7. ‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in:
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Uncorrected TGA
c. Tricuspid atresia
d. Ebstein’s anomaly
8. All are essential components of TOF except:
a. Valvular pulmonic stenosis
b. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Infundibular stenosis
d. Aorta overriding
9. Hampton’s hump is seen in:
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Tuberculosis
c. Bronchogenic Ca
d. ..
10. All of the following can be used for thromboprophylaxis except:
a. Heparin
b. Aspirin
c. Warfarin
d. Antithrombin-III
11. ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no prefious significant medical history presenting with sudden onset syncope. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Vasovagal shock
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Complete heart block
d. Temporal lobe epilepsy
12. Uppermost structure seen at the hilus of the left lung is:
a. Pulmonary artery
b. Pulmonary vein
c. Bronchus
d. Bronchial artery
13. The best investigation is thromboembolism is:
a. D-dimer levels
b. Multicentric CT angiography
c. Colour Doppler USG
d. Intracatheter angiography
14. Hypercalcemia is caused by all except:
a. Loop diuretics
b. Lithium
c. Vitamin D intoxication
d. ..
15. Nephelometry is:
a. Lambert-Beer law
b. Scattering of light by particulate solution
c. Defraction of light
d. Decreased intensity of light
16. Most common site of spinal cord tumour is:
a. Intradural extramedullary
b. Extradural
c. Intramedullary
d. All have equal distribution
17. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with hyperintense thalamic lesion on non-contrast CT scan of the brain is seen in:
a. Alexander’s disease
b. Krabbe’s ds.
c. Canavan’s ds
d. Metachromatic leucodystrophy
18. A 2-year old child presents with scattered lesions in the skull. Biopsy revealed Langerhans giant cells. Most commonly associated is:
a. CD1a
b. CD57
c. CD3
d. CD68
19. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery:
a. Atenolol
b. Amlodepine
c. Statins
d. Metformin
20. Which of the following is not included in intensive management of diabetes mellitus:
a. Pregnancy..
b. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy
c. DM with acute MI
d. Post kidney transplant
21. VHL syndrome includes all except:
a. Endolymphatic sac tumours
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Hemangioendotheliomas
d. Islet cell tumours
22. All but one acts via GABAA except:
a. Thiopentone
b. Midazolam
c. Zolpidem
d. Promethazine
23. Which of the following is not used as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect:
a. Digitalis,anti-arrhythmics
b. Antihistaminics,antidepressants
c. Macrolides,…
d. ..
24. Caspases are involved in:
a. Apoptosis
b. ..
c. ..
d. ..
25. Reye’s syndrome is ultrastructurally characterized by:
a. Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
b. Depletion of glycogen
c. Dilatation of the endoplasmic reticulum
d. Perinuclear staining
26. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to:
a. Brachyury gene
b. BMPR-4
c. Nodal gene
d. FGF-8
27. HACEK group includes all except:
a. Hemophilus aprophillus
b. Acinetobacter baumanni
c. Eikenella corrodens
d. Cardiobacterium hominis
28. All are true about Thiopentone except:
a. NaHCO3 is a preservative
b. Contraindicated in Porphyrias
c. Agent of choice in shock
d. Cerebroprotective
29. All regarding Mivacurium are true except:
a. Larger doses speed the onset of action
b. Bronchospasm
c. Flushing
d. Hypertension
30. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis. Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused mostly by:(do not remember the exact question but it was a straight forward question):
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. H.ducreyi
c. Treponema pallidum
d. ..
31. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using:
a. M protein
b. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall
c. Group C carbohydrate antigen
d. ..
32. Increased cerebral O2 consumption is caused by:
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c. Atracurium
d. Fentanyl
33. Marker for acute Hepatitis B is:
a. HBV-DNA polymerase
b. IgG anti-HBc
c. Core antigen (HbcAg)
d. Anti-HbsAg
34. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all except:
a. Sensory loss of the medial 1/3rd of the hand
b. Weakness of the hypothenar muscles
c. Claw hand
d. Adductor pollicis paralysis
35. After fracture of the penis ( injury to the tunica albugenia) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma at:
a. The penis and scrotum
b. At the perineum in a butterfly shape
c. Penis, scrotum, perineum and lower part of anterior abdominal wall
d. Shaft of the penis only.
36. Floating ‘Water-Lily’ sign is seen in:
a. Hydatid ds.
b. Aspergillosis
c. Tuberculous cavity
d. ..
37. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip:
a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. Medial rotation
d. Lateral rotation
38. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:
a. Anteriorly, above the superior mesenteric artery
b. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery
c. Posteriorly, at the level of superior mesenteric artery
d. Anteriorly, below the inferior mesenteric artery
39. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between:
a. Anterior and posterior circumflex humoral artery
b. Suprascapular and posterior circumflex artery
c. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
d. Anterior circumflex artery and subscapular artery
40. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs in maintained by increased blood flow through:
a. Inferior Phrenic and pericardiophrenic vessels
b. Intercostal and Superior epigastric
c. Subcostal and Umbilical
d. …
41. Which of the following is correctly matched:
a. B cells – Somatostain
b. D cells – Insulin
c. G cells – Gastrin
d. …..
42. Exercise causes:
a. Increased blood flow to the muscles after half minute of minute
b. Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure
c. Body temperature rise
d. …
43. All of the following occur when the blood flows through the capillaries except:
a. Increase in hematocrit
b. Hb curve shifts to the left
c. Increased protein content
d. Decrease in pH
44. When a person changes position from standing to lying down position, following occurs:
a. Heart rate increases and settles at a higher level
b. Venous return to the heart rises immediately
c. Cerebral blood flow becomes more than that in standing position and settles at a higher level
d. Decrease in blood flow to the lung apex
45. In mitral valve prolapse, the histological finding is:
a. Hyalinization of the valve
b. Fibrinoid necrosis
c. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve
d. ..
46. Regarding flourosis all are true except:
a. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children
b. Deposition occurs in the skeletal system and muscles
c. Deflouridation is done by Nalgonda technique
d. Genu valgum
47. SAFE strategy is recommended for:
a. Trachoma
b. Glaucoma
c. Diabetic retinopathy
d. Cataract
48. Telefona is:
a. Beating on the feet ( soles )
b. Pulling of hair
c. Beating on both the ears
d. ..
49. A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia to you. She had suffered from typhoid fever 4 months back. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Androgenetic alopecia
b. Telogen effluvium
c. Anagen effluvium
d. Alopecia areata
50. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing alopecia except:
a. Lichen planus
b. Discoid lupus erythematosus
c. Alopecia areata
d. Lupus vulgaris
51. Learning does not include:
a. Modelling
b. Catharsis
c. Exposure
d. Sensitization
52. In death due to asphyxia, last to be opened is:
a. Head
b. Neck
c. Thorax
d. Abdomen
53. Acridine orange is used as a stain for:
a. DNA and RNA
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrate
d. Lipids
54. PAS does not stain:
a. Fungal cell wall
b. Basement membrane of bacteria
c. Glycogen
d. Lipids
55. Not used to stain fats:
a. Oil red O
b. Congo red
c. Sudan III
d. Sudan black
56. Peroxidase is used to detect:
a. Glucose
b. Ammonia
c. Hemoglobin
d. Creatinine
57. Hemoglobin estimation is not done by:
a. Drabkin’s method
b. Sahli’s method
c. Spectrometry
d. Wintrobe’s method
58. All of the following are included in grievous hurt except:
a. Loss of testis
b. Loss of eye
c. Loss of kidney
d. Abrasion of the face
59. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is:
a. Astereognosis
b. Hemiparesis
c. Hemisensoriloss
d. No neurological deficit
60. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except:
a. B/L renal artery stenosis
b. End stage renal disease
c. Cushing’s disease
d. Primary hyperaldosteronism
61. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except:
a. Beta blockers
b. Glucocorticoids
c. ..
d. ..
62. Cushing’s disease includes all except:
a. Central obesity
b. Episodic hypertension
c. Easy bruisability
d. Glucose intolerance
63. True about Ogilive’s syndrome are all except:
a. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon
b. It involves entire / part of the large colon
c. It occurs after previous surgery
d. It occurs commonly after narcotic use
64. One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries:
a. Ascending colon
b. Hepatic flexure
c. Splenic flexure
d. Descending colon
65. Regarding Phenytoin,false is:
a. Induces microsomal enzymes
b. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
c. Higher the dose,higher is the half life
d. Highly protein bound
66. Most potent anti-emetic is:
a. Ondansetron
b. Granisetron
c. Dolasetron
d. Pavalosetron
67. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except:
a. Factor VIII
b. Factor IX
c. Von Willebrand factor
d. Fibrinogen
68. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except:
a. Tacrolimus
b. Metformin
c. Cyclosporine
d. Phenytoin
69. Not a measure of central tendency:
a. Mode
b. Range
c. Variable
d. Standard deviation
70. Asherman’s syndrome is diagnosed by all except:
a. HSG
b. Hysteroscopy
c. Endometrial culture
d. Saline infusion USG
71. Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans act through:
a. 5HT-1A
b. 5HT-1B
c. 5HT-1F
d. 5HT-3
72. True about protease inhibitors are all except:
a. Acts as a substrate for P-glycoprotein(P-gp) and action is mediated by mdr-1 gene
b. Hepatic oxidative metabolism
c. All protease inhibitors interfere with metabolism by drug interactions
d. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4
73. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to:
a. Subphrenic abscess
b. CO2 narcosis
c. Positioning of the patient
d. Compression of the lung
74. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is:
a. Thayer-martin
b. TCBS medium
c. Scirrow’s medium
d. ..
75. Primary impact injury is seen externally most commonly in the:
a. Head
b. Chest
c. Legs
d. Abdomen
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76. In tandem [bleep], the number of [bleep] fired are:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
77. For biochemical analysis vitrous in sent in:
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Phenol
c. Formalin
d. Fluoride
78. The agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Acetone
c. Formalin
d. Xylol
79. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by:
a. Sodium hypochlorite
b. Iodine
c. Absolute alcohol
d. Quarternary ammonium compounds
80. Which of the following person is present in a sub centre:
a. Multipurpose worker
b. Laboratory technician
c. Health educator
d. Medical officer
81. True about dietary allowance are all except:
a. Adequate intake
b. RDA
c. Dietary intake according to food composition
d. Food intake according to the upper limit of the RDA
82. Most common type of seizures in neonates are:
a. Clonic
b. Tonic
c. Subtle
d. Myoclonic
83. Gall bladder epithelium is:
a. Simple squamous
b. Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
c. Simple columnar
d. Simple columnar with brush border
84. After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed. She developed swelling of the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What would you do next?
a. Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
b. Observation in hospital
c. Surgical drainage
d. Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks
85. A 3-year old girl is posted for tonsillectomy. On examination it is found that she has a midline cystic swelling extending till below the hyoid bone. It is painless and moves with deglutition. The thyroid examination is normal. What should be done next?
a. Percutaneous aspiration
b. I.V. antibiotics
c. Surgical removal
d. Observation
86. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in:
a. Mineralocortoid excess
b. Increased excretion of base
c. Decreased secretion of H+ ion
d. Deficiency of mineralocorticoids
87. Goniometry is measurement of:
a. Number of gonococci
b. Length of the genital hiatus
c. Urethrovesical angle
d. ..
88. Good Clinical Practices (GCPs) are not a part of:
a. Preclinical studies
b. Phase I studies
c. Phase II studies
d. Phase IV studies
89. A 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, weight loss and milky discharge from the pages . Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Occult carcinoma
c. Hypothyroidism
d. HIV
90. Mirena is:
a. Used in abortion
b. Anti-progesterone
c. Progesterone IUCD
d. Hormonal implant
91. Bisphosphonates are not used in:
a. Hypercalcemia
b. Osteoporosis
c. Cancer
d. Vitamin D intoxication
92. True about vitiligo are all except:
a. Topical steroids give good results
b. Genetic predisposition
c. PUVA-B is used for the treatment
d. Leukotrichia is associated with good prognosis
93. In osteomalacia, all are true except:
a. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
b. Increased serum calcium
c. Looser’s zones
d. Proximal myopathy
94. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
95. FNAC needle gauge size is:
a. 26 – 28
b. 22 – 26
c. 18 – 22
d. 16 – 18
96. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line:
a. Innermost intercostals
b. Transverses thoracis
c. External intercostals
d. Internal intercostals
97. Dangerous area of the face is:
a. Ciliary body
b. Sclera
c. Optic nerve
d. Retina
[snip]. PCR requires:
a. Li++
b. Ca++
c. Na++
d. Mg++
99. Urothelium does not line:
a. Collecting ducts
b. Minor calyx
c. Ureter
d. Urinary bladder
100. Ureteric peristalsis is due to:
a. Sympathetic innervation
b. Parasympathetic innervation
c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation
d. Pacemaker activity of the smooth muscle cells in the renal pelvis
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101. Uterine relaxant with the least side effect:
a. Ritodrine
b. MgSO4
c. Nifedipine
d. Progesterone
102. In Primary Pulmonary Hypertension all are seen except:
a. Hyperventilation
b. Morbid obesity
c. Fenfluramine
d. High altitude
103. Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is:
a. Foramen of Monro
b. Temporal horn of the lateral ventricle
c. Trigone of the lateral ventricle
d. Fourth ventricle
104. According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is:
a. Caudate lobe
b. Quadrate lobe
c. Left lobe
d. Right lobe
105. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called:
a. Right dominance
b. Left dominance
c. Balanced dominance
d. ..
106. Not a feature of DKA is:
a. Tachypnoea
b. Bradycardia
c. Abdominal pain
d. Dehydration
107. In Down’s syndrome, false is:
a. Increased PAPP-A
b. Increased β-HCG
c. Absent nasal bone
d. Reversal of diastolic blood flow
108. With CSF all are true except:
a. Persistent leakage causes headache
b. Neutrophils are normally not present
c. pH is less than that of blood
d. Secreted by the arachnoid villi
109. Fractional excretion of Na++
a. Pre-renal azotemia
b. ATN
c. Intrinsic renal failure
d. Renal artery stenosis
110. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
a. Reduvid bug
b. Trombiculid mite
c. Enteric pathogens
d. Cyclops
111. Kala-azar, vector is:
a. Flea
b. Tsetse fly
c. Sand fly
d. ..
112. Regarding genital development, true is:
a. Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
b. Genital ridge starts developing at 5th week
c. Male genitals develop earlier than female genitals
d. Genital development is complete by 10th week
113. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except:
a. Mitotic figures in the central cornea
b. Wide separated collagen bands
c. Hydration of the corneal epithelium
d. Unmyelinated nerve fibers
114. Regarding furosemide, true is:
a. Given by parenteral route only
b. Used in pulmonary oedema
c. Acts at the PCT
d. ..
115. Basement membrane consists of all except:
a. Laminin
b. Nidogenin
c. Entactin
d. Rhodopsin
116. Thiazides cause all except:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Increased calcium excretion
c. Increased uric acid excretion
d. Useful in congestive heart failure
117. Fast axonal transport is by all except:
a. Dynenin
b. Kinesin
c. Microfilaments
d. Neurofilaments
118. Most common tumor is NF-1 is:
a. Astrocytoma
b. Optic tract glioma
c. Glioblastoma multiforme
d. ..
119. Regarding type A personality, false is:
a. Hostility
b. Time pressure
c. Competitiveness
d. Mood fluctuations
120. Not included in the National Immunisation Programme is:
a. Tetanus toxoid
b. Hepatitis B
c. BCG
d. Measles
121. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except:
a. PNH
b. Megaloblastic anaemia
c. Myelodysplastic anaemia
d. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia
122. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:
a. Isthmus of the thyroid
b. Inferior thyroid artery
c. Thyroidea ima
d. Inferior thyroid vein
123. A newborn female child, weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but condition of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female ‘sibling’ died within a week with the same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is:
a. Total anomalous pulmonary vein connection
b. Meconium aspiration syndrome
c. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
d. Disseminated HSV infection
124. All are characteristics of schizophrenia except:
a. Third person auditory hallucinations
b. Inappropriate emotions
c. Long stretches of mood changes
d. Formal thought disorder
125. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect in:
a. β2 – microglobulin
b. Transthyretin
c. AANF
d. Pyrin
126. Perforators are not present at the:
a. Ankle
b. Distal calf
c. Mid thigh
d. Below the inguinal ligament
127. Increase in maternal serum AFP levels is seen in:
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Molar pregnancy
c. Over estimated gestational age
d. Congenital Nephrotic Syndrome
128. The ‘c’-waves in JVP are due to:
a. Atrial contraction
b. Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium
c. Ventricular systole when the tricuspid valve is closed
d. ..
129. Tongue develops from:
a. Occipital somites
b. Mesoderm of the pharyngeal pouch
c. Cervical somites
d. ..
130. Prions consist of:
a. DNA and RNA
b. DNA, RNA and proteins
c. RNA and proteins
d. Only proteins
131. Polyhydramnios is associated with all except:
a. ..
b. ..
c. Bilateral renal agenesis
d. ..
132. Shock lung is characterized histologically by:
a. Diffuse alveolar oedema
b. Hemosiderosis
c. Interstitial pneumonia
d. Pulmonary oedema
133. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except:
a. RSV is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants
b. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults
c. ..
d. ..
134. Internal Podalic Version done in cases of transeverse lie is associated with the following complication:
a. Uterine rupture
b. Vaginal laceration
c. Uterine atony
d. Cervical laceration
135. In a patient with post partum hemorrhage with an existing heart disease, which is contraindicated:
a. Misoprostol
b. Methyl ergometrine
c. Oxytocin
d. ..
136. A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left aryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is:
a. Vertical hemilaryngectomy
b. Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
c. Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
d. Total laryngectomy
137. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to other hypnotics is:
a. They alter sleep pattern more than other hypnotics
b. More sedative than other hypnotics
c. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics
d. ..
138. A gravida3 female with a history of 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of the cervix. Most appropriate management would be:
a. Administer Dinoprostone
b. Administer Progesterone
c. Apply Fothergill’s stitch
d. Apply McDonald’s stitch
139. A female come with complaints of chest pain.On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion. The pain is mediated by:
a. Deep cardiac plexus
b. Superficial cardiac plexus
c. Phrenic nerve
d. Subcostal nerve
140. The mechanism of action of surfactant is:
a. Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
b. Lubricates the flow of CO2 diffusion
c. Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic
d. ..
141. A 12 year old girl presents with Acute rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have:
a. Increased peak expiratory flow
b. Increased total lung capacity
c. Increased residual volume
d. Decreased functional residual capacity
142. Bicarbonate is maximally absorbed from:
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. Collecting duct
d. Thick ascending loop of Henle
143. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is:
a. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria
b. ..
c. ..
d. ..
144. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is:
a. The lysosomes are deficient in the enzyme hydrolase
b. There is a defect in the fusion od lysosomes and phagosomes
c. There is a defect in the lysosomal membrane
d. ..
145. Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:
a. Evaluation
b. Monitoring
c. Input - output analysis
d. Network analysis
146. Meiosis occurs at which of the following transformation:
a. Primary spermatocyte to intermediate spermatocyte
b. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
c. Secondary spermatocyte to round spermatid
d. Round spermatid to elongated spermatid
147. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for:
a. FSH
b. LH
c. Inhibin
d. ..
148. According to the new WHO criteria, all are true in a normal person except:
a. Sperm count > 20 million
b. Volume > 1 ml
c. Normal morphology in > 15 % (strict criteria)
d. Aggressive forward motility in > 25 %
149. 18 year old male presents with pectus excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination there is mild pectus excavatum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if he has:
a. FEV1 / FVC less than 0.60
b. Limiation of maximum inspiration during exercise
c. Peak work capacity 60% of expected
d. Functional work capacity 80% of expected
150. Following is associated with maximum risk of invasive carcinoma of cervix:
a. Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
b. High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
c. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HPV-16
d. Squamous intraepithelial lesion associated with HIV
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151. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by:
a. Maternal deaths/live birth
b. Maternal deaths/1000 live births
c. Maternal deaths/100000 live births
d. Maternal deaths/100000 population
152. In HIV window period indicates:
a. Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms
b. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
c. .
d. .
153. In an epidemic the first case of come to the notice of the investigator is:
a. Index case
b. Primary case
c. Secondary case
d. Tertiary case
154. In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen except:
a. HbsAg
b. IgM anti-HbcAg
c. HbeAg
d. Anti-HbsAg
155. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:
a. Chronic hepatitis B with…
b. Alcoholic hepatitis
c. Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis
d. Hemochromatosis
156. Councilman bodies are seen in:
a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Acute viral hepatitis
d. ..
157. Altered perception of real objects is:
a. Illusion
b. Delusion
c. Hallucination
d. Delirium
158. Epidemic Dropsy is due to:
a. BOAA
b. Sanguinarine
c. Aflatoxin
d. ..
159. Vitamin K is required for:
a. Carboxylation
b. Hydroxylation
c. ..
d. ..
160. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease:
a. Immigration of healthy persons
b. Increased cure rate of the disease
c. Longer duration of the disease
d. ..
161. A 30 year old male patient presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base. The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10 gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his management will be:
a. Proton pump inhibitors
b. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and pyloroplasty
c. Duodenotomy with controlled bleeder and truncal vagotomy with antrectomy
d. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer
162. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the following order:
a. Abdomen – Neck
b. Chest – Abdomen – Neck
c. Abdomen – Chest – Neck
d. Chest – Neck
163. Clomiphene citrate is associated with all except:
a. Polycystic ovarian disease
b. Multiple pregnancies
c. Ovarian cancer
d. Teratogenecity
164. Regarding National Polio Surveillance all are tru except:
a. Mopping up is done in areas with active cases found
b. ..
c. ..
d. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done in children
165. True about polioviruses is:
a. Most cases are symptomatic
b. Inactivated vaccines given I.M. produce spastic paralysis
c. ..
d. Inactivated polio vaccine are given to child less than 3 years of age
166. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you give now?
a. Re-start the immunization according to age
b. Give BCG, Measles, and second doses of OPV and DPT
c. Give BCG, Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
d. Give Measles and booster doses of OPV and DPT
167. Regarding nitric oxide, false is:
a. Seen in the lung of smokers
b. Increases cAMP levels
c. Used to treat hypertension
d. ..
168. True about fibrates is all except:
a. (MOA)….PPARα….lipoprotein lipase…decreased LDL…
b. Absorped better on empty stomach and decreased on food intake
c. Side effects include rash, myalgia, impotence and many others
d. They are the drug of choice in type III hyperlipidemia and…
169. In a survey, mamny children are examinedand were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial cancers are most likely to be associated with which anomaly:
a. Medullary sponge kidney
b. Bladder extrophy
c. Unilateral renal agenesis
d. Double ureter
170. What is true about linkage analysis in familial gene disorders:
a. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorders
b. Useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non-affected family members
c. Used to make a pedigree chart to show non-paternity
d. ..
171. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is:
a. Screening
b. Surveillance
c. Case finding
d. Notification
172. Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is based on:
a. Unconscious conflict
b. Maladjusted reinforcement
c. Organic neurological problem
d. ..
173. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the person is:
a. Immune to diphtheria
b. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
c. Susceptible to diphtheria
d. Carrier of diphtheria
174. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is:
a. Deep invasion is not seen
b. Elek’s test is done for toxigenicity
c. Metachromatic granules are seen
d. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change
175. Primary Health Care is:
a. Health for all
b. ..
c. ..
d. ..
176. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the highest?
a. Coarcatation of aorta
b. Eisenmenger’s complex
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Mitral stenosis
177. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pumps are inhibited by:
a. Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis
b. Activation of anaerobic glycolysis
c. Activation of cAMP phosphodiesterase inhibitors
d. Interference with electron chain transport
178. About myocardial O2 demand, true is:
a. Inverse relation with heart rate
b. Inverse relation to systemic hypertension
c. Constant relation to external work done
d. Negligible in quiescent heart
179. Not a part of informed consent is:
a. ..
b. ..
c. ..
d. Concealed information…..
180. Proteins which are different in peptide sequence but have a similar structure are said to be:
a. Convergent
b. Divergent
c. Opportunistic
d. ..
181. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings having pituitary involvement, thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis:
a. MEN 1
b. MEN 2A
c. MEN 2B
d. MEN 2C
182. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria. Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Glomerulonephritis
b. Ca-Urinary bladder
c. Ureteral calculus
d. ..
183. Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students?
a. School teachers
b. Medical officers of health centers
c. Ophthalmologists
d. Health assistants
184. A 71/2 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive curve. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Post viral syndrome
b. Bronchiolitis obliterans
c. Follicular bronchitis
d. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis
185. A 2 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe and fever. Your next investigation would be:
a. Bronchoscopy
b. Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx
c. CT scan of the chest
d. Allergen sensitivity test
186. Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney is due to:
a. Congenital renal defect
b. Obstructive uropathy
c. Intrauterine infections and scar
d. Is a normal variety
187. A child presents with history of respitory infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis:
a. Repeat sweat chloride measurements
b. Nasal electrode potential difference
c. Fat in stool for next 72 hours
d. DNA analysis for Δ508 mutation
188. A term infant has not passed meconium for 48 hours. He presents with distension of abdomen and emesis since one day. Next most appropriate investigation would be:
a. Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis
b. Manometry
c. Lower bowel contrast enema
d. Oesophagoscopy
189. A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in the pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:
a. Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks
b. IV antibiotics and follow up after a month
c. Tympanoplasty
d. Tympano-mastoid exploration
190. A 18 year old primigravida complained of decreased fetal movements. She delivered a baby weighing 2000gms at 30 weeks of gestation. The APGAR scores of the baby were 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes respectively. The baby died in an hour. Post-mortem examination revealed multiple, peripheral, radially arranged cysts in the kidney. Most common associated finding in the baby would be:
a. Holoprosencephaly
b. Hepatic cysts and hepatic fibrosis
c. Ureteral agenesis
d. Medullary sponge kidney
191. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
a. MRI of the brain
b. NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
c. Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
d. Inferior meatus puncture
192. A 71/2 year old child presents with non-blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee. Urine analysis shows proteinurea + and hematuris +++. On kidney biopsy which finding will be most commonly seen:
a. Fusion of podocytes
b. Acute tubular necrosis
c. Deposition of IgA
d. Thickened basement membrane
193. In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is seen:
a. Hypertrophy and degeneration of the visceral epithelium
b. Proliferation of the parietal epithelium
c. Tuft necrosis
d. Mesangiolysis
194. Which vaccine should not be given to a child suffering from convulsions?
a. Measles
b. BCG
c. DPT
d. OPV
195. Not seen in SIADH is:
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypouricemia
c. Volume depletion
d. ..
196. A 40 year old man, smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiographic examination he is found to have ST elevations suggesting an inferior wall infarction. Next step in the management would be:
a. Aspirin
b. Thrombolytic therapy
c. Pantoprazole
d. Beta-blockers
197. The ureter develops from:
a. Metanephros
b. Mesonephros
c. Mesonephric duct
d. Paramesonephric duct
198. A child presented with respiratory distress.was broght to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. Now intubated. Chest x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdomen. His Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What is the next step?
a. Remove the Endotracheal tube
b. Put a nasogastric tube
c. Surgery
d. Tube thoracostomy
199. OC pills are contraindicated in patients receiving:
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Streptomycin
d. Pyrazinamide
200. A patient is on a Low calcium diet for 6 weeks. He is most likely to have:
a. Raised parathyroid hormone levels
b. Raised calcitonin levels
c. Increased phosphate levels
Wednesday, December 5, 2007
Neuro mcq
Question 1 : A 54 year-old man has moderate right spastic hemiplegia one week after a stroke. He has weak voluntary movement at the shoulder, hip and knee. What is the highest level of mobility he most likely will achieve?Options: 1. Independence in manual wheelchair use 2. Independent ambulation for a short distance with a brace for the ankle 3. Independence in the use of a power wheelchair 4. Independence in ambulation without an assistive device 5. Contact guard assistance for household ambulation
2
Question 2 : The risk factor most frequently associated with stroke is:Options: 1. Hypertension 2. Hypercholesterolemia 3. Recurrent deep venous thrombosis 4. Intermittent sinus tachycardia 5. Female gender
1
Question 3 : A 73 year-old woman has a stroke resulting in mild left hemiparesis and left neglect. Where is the lesion most likely to be located?Options: 1. Right cerebellar peduncle 2. Left frontal lobe 3. Right thalamus 4. Left internal capsule 5. Right parietal lobe
5
Question 4 : After a right parietal stroke, common neuropsychological features include:Options: 1. Impaired language comprehension 2. Oral-motor apraxia 3. Anosognosia 4. Cortical Blindness 5. Anomia
3
Question 5 : Mortality is lowest following a:Options: 1. lacunar stroke 2. embolic stroke 3. hemorrhagic stroke 4. thrombotic stroke 5. TIA
5
Question 6 : Aphasia is most likely to occur with what type of stroke?Options: 1. Lacunar 2. Right cortical hemisphere 3. Left cortical hemisphere 4. Brain stem 5. Bilateral occipital lobes
3
Question 7 : Which of the following statements best describe fluent aphasia?Options:1. Complete loss of speech and language 2. Rate, rhythm and melody of speech are normal, but nonsense words or sound substitution errors occur 3. Poorly articulated and effortful speech 4. Normal understanding of the speech of others but impaired repetition of phrases 5. Disorientation with respect to time an inability to follow demonstrations of motor acts
2
Question 8 : The most significant risk factor for a thrombotic stroke is:Options: 1. family history 2. smoking 3. history of TIAs 4. hypercholesterolemia 5. hypertryglyceridemia
3
Question 9 : A function of the dominant cerebral hemisphere is:Options: 1. ipsilateral motor control 2. visual spatial orientation 3. ipsilateral sensation 4. a and c 5. language
5
Question 10 : All the following are characteristic of right parietal brain strokes except:Options: 1. poor recognition of facial expressions of emotion 2. left homonymous hemianopsia 3. aprosody of speech 4. anomia 5. anosognosia
2
Question 2 : The risk factor most frequently associated with stroke is:Options: 1. Hypertension 2. Hypercholesterolemia 3. Recurrent deep venous thrombosis 4. Intermittent sinus tachycardia 5. Female gender
1
Question 3 : A 73 year-old woman has a stroke resulting in mild left hemiparesis and left neglect. Where is the lesion most likely to be located?Options: 1. Right cerebellar peduncle 2. Left frontal lobe 3. Right thalamus 4. Left internal capsule 5. Right parietal lobe
5
Question 4 : After a right parietal stroke, common neuropsychological features include:Options: 1. Impaired language comprehension 2. Oral-motor apraxia 3. Anosognosia 4. Cortical Blindness 5. Anomia
3
Question 5 : Mortality is lowest following a:Options: 1. lacunar stroke 2. embolic stroke 3. hemorrhagic stroke 4. thrombotic stroke 5. TIA
5
Question 6 : Aphasia is most likely to occur with what type of stroke?Options: 1. Lacunar 2. Right cortical hemisphere 3. Left cortical hemisphere 4. Brain stem 5. Bilateral occipital lobes
3
Question 7 : Which of the following statements best describe fluent aphasia?Options:1. Complete loss of speech and language 2. Rate, rhythm and melody of speech are normal, but nonsense words or sound substitution errors occur 3. Poorly articulated and effortful speech 4. Normal understanding of the speech of others but impaired repetition of phrases 5. Disorientation with respect to time an inability to follow demonstrations of motor acts
2
Question 8 : The most significant risk factor for a thrombotic stroke is:Options: 1. family history 2. smoking 3. history of TIAs 4. hypercholesterolemia 5. hypertryglyceridemia
3
Question 9 : A function of the dominant cerebral hemisphere is:Options: 1. ipsilateral motor control 2. visual spatial orientation 3. ipsilateral sensation 4. a and c 5. language
5
Question 10 : All the following are characteristic of right parietal brain strokes except:Options: 1. poor recognition of facial expressions of emotion 2. left homonymous hemianopsia 3. aprosody of speech 4. anomia 5. anosognosia
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